You twisted Chester's words. He stated one thing, you questioned a different thing.How does the KJV giving better understanding of the bible to English speakers denigrate the work of the KJV translators?
His words: "To elevate the masterful and good work done by the KJV translators to an equality with the original manuscripts denigrates their work."
Did you intentionally change the subject, or did you just badly misread his statement?