I'm not saying Scripture only applies to a certain place/time period. It's the extension from a type-case to a universal picture of mankind. Isaiah's words have to do with a situation in which there is a tangible sin like idolatry that corrupts any work that is done.
What I'm saying aren't things I'm simply making up whole-cloth. James is the one who says "For as the body without the spirit is dead, so faith without works is dead also. " and "You see then that a man is justified by works, and not by faith only. " "Faith" that doesn't produce change is not faith, and change means works.
The question centers around whether James is speaking of the same justification as Paul. I've given the reasons from James that I believe he is. No one has offered any counter to those contextual issues.
Instead there's insistence on a peculiar reading of Paul as all-encompassing, a reading that didn't exist until 1517, and then dismissing James. Or even worse, a writing off of James entirely to say that only Paul's writings apply to the body of Christ.
What I'm saying aren't things I'm simply making up whole-cloth. James is the one who says "For as the body without the spirit is dead, so faith without works is dead also. " and "You see then that a man is justified by works, and not by faith only. " "Faith" that doesn't produce change is not faith, and change means works.
The question centers around whether James is speaking of the same justification as Paul. I've given the reasons from James that I believe he is. No one has offered any counter to those contextual issues.
Instead there's insistence on a peculiar reading of Paul as all-encompassing, a reading that didn't exist until 1517, and then dismissing James. Or even worse, a writing off of James entirely to say that only Paul's writings apply to the body of Christ.
show me your faith <--JAMES IS NOT GOD.....
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