What translation has the exact words of God preserved for English speakers?

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KJV1611

KJV1611

Banned
#101
Nov 23, 2013
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#101
@Chester
If I wanted to form a close relationship and friendship with you through email, would I throw in some false statements, mixed in with some true statements about myself? Would I write the Emails in Arabic so that you would have to learn Arabic in order to understand my messages or go to someone else to let them tell you what I was really saying?

The bible's a love letter from God designed to create an honest, loving, close relationship between us and God.
 
Chester

Chester

Senior Member
#102
May 23, 2016
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#102
KJV1611 said:
@Chester
If I wanted to form a close relationship and friendship with you through email, would I throw in some false statements, mixed in with some true statements about myself? Would I write the Emails in Arabic so that you would have to learn Arabic in order to understand my messages or go to someone else to let them tell you what I was really saying?

The bible's a love letter from God designed to create an honest, loving, close relationship between us and God.
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Ah, great humor . . . but you should capitalize Bible - unless you don't think the KJV deserves it!
 
Chester

Chester

Senior Member
#103
May 23, 2016
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#103
KJV1611 said:
To say that a translator can come close to what God's actual intentions were for a word is really the height of stupidity. That puts them on par or equal to God.
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So then saying a translator doesn't just come close, but actually gets the exact words of God, is what? over the height of stupidity and puts them above God? :rolleyes::eek:
 
Chester

Chester

Senior Member
#104
May 23, 2016
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#104
KJV1611 said:
@Chester
If I wanted to form a close relationship and friendship with you through email, would I throw in some false statements, mixed in with some true statements about myself? Would I write the Emails in Arabic so that you would have to learn Arabic in order to understand my messages or go to someone else to let them tell you what I was really saying?

The bible's a love letter from God designed to create an honest, loving, close relationship between us and God.
Click to expand...
Blessings to you as you read the KJV! It is a beautiful translation, and I use it myself more than any other.
 
KJV1611

KJV1611

Banned
#105
Nov 23, 2013
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#105
Chester said:
Ah, great humor . . . but you should capitalize Bible - unless you don't think the KJV deserves it!
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The bible is the spirit of Christ according to the bible. I don't understand why you would make jokes about that.

1Pe_1:11 Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow.
 
KJV1611

KJV1611

Banned
#106
Nov 23, 2013
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#106
Chester said:
So then saying a translator doesn't just come close, but actually gets the exact words of God, is what? over the height of stupidity and puts them above God? :rolleyes::eek:
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Either God moves the translators to write the mind of God or we have no clue what the mind of God was in the "originals".
 
J

John146

Senior Member
#107
Jan 13, 2016
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#107
Chester said:
Blessings to you as you read the KJV! It is a beautiful translation, and I use it myself more than any other.
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Until what? You come to a passage you disagree? What makes you use another? Just curious...
 
Chester

Chester

Senior Member
#108
May 23, 2016
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#108
John146 said:
Until what? You come to a passage you disagree? What makes you use another? Just curious...
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LOL! Quite often I pull out my Greek New Testament to see if the Greek tenses give a deeper insight into the verb: English does not have the depth of verb meaning that the koine Greek did!

I don't ever disagree with what Scripture says - I just believe it!
 
Dino246

Dino246

Senior Member
#109
Jun 30, 2015
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#109
KJV1611 said:
Either God moves the translators to write the mind of God or we have no clue what the mind of God was in the "originals".
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Fallacy: false dichotomy. There are other possibilities, including reality.
 
Dino246

Dino246

Senior Member
#110
Jun 30, 2015
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#110
KJV1611 said:
The bible is the spirit of Christ according to the bible. I don't understand why you would make jokes about that.

1Pe_1:11 Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow.
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I don't see how you can read that verse and conclude that "the bible is the spirit of Christ".
 
KJV1611

KJV1611

Banned
#112
Nov 23, 2013
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#112
Dino246 said:
I don't see how you can read that verse and conclude that "the bible is the spirit of Christ".
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The KJV translators made it easy by referring to the Spirit of Christ as an "it". The spirit that Jesus commended to the Father just prior to his death ain't an it, that was Jesus. Certainly you don't think Jesus was walking around in the wilderness as disembodied spirit.

Why do you think Jesus is called the Word of God? Duh, because the word of God is the Spirit of Christ. Why are believers called the body of Christ? Because the Spirit of Christ (the word of God) lives in us.

I've told you over and over that the bible is an esoteric book and our faith comes by HEARING and HEARING comes from the word of God. Hearing isn't hearing audible or written words, it's hearing the word of the Lord HIDDEN in the words of the bible. You can't develop good hearing by bouncing around through multiple translations and trying to find deeper meaning in the "original languages"'
 
J

John146

Senior Member
#114
Jan 13, 2016
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#114
Chester said:
LOL! Quite often I pull out my Greek New Testament to see if the Greek tenses give a deeper insight into the verb: English does not have the depth of verb meaning that the koine Greek did!

I don't ever disagree with what Scripture says - I just believe it!
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Please give an example, thanks.
 
KJV1611

KJV1611

Banned
#115
Nov 23, 2013
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#115
John146 said:
Please give an example, thanks.
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I can give you a typical example.

Some moron biblical scholar who hates the KJV said the word Easter is an obvious mistranslation to promote the pagan religion of King James.

(Act 12:4) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.


g3957
πάσχα πάσχα pascha

Yep the moron biblical scholar who hates the KJV was right, the correct translation should have been Passover. And this is where the typical armchair Greek expert dictionary reader leaves it. They will not go on to investigate why the KJV translators used the word Easter for Pascha in this ONE PLACE in the bible.

Then they will go on to belittle Christians who celebrate Easter under the name Easter, the name that God gave for the fulfillment of Passover by putting it in the KJV that the entire English speaking people read for over 400 years which established the word Easter as the fulfillment of Passover just as God intended when he INSPIRED the KJV translators to use the word Easter.
 
M

Micaiah-imla

Banned
#116
Feb 29, 2020
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#116
KJV1611 said:
Some moron biblical scholar
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I like your last post; but they would be just as effective without the word “moron”.

I’m just looking out for you bro. :)

I’d like to continue to hear your voice on this chat board. Some banning has been going on frequently lately.

Watch your back man. ;)
 
KJV1611

KJV1611

Banned
#117
Nov 23, 2013
13,684
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#117
Micaiah-imla said:
I like your last post; but they would be just as effective without the word “moron”.

I’m just looking out for you bro. :)

I’d like to continue to hear your voice on this chat board. Some banning has been going on frequently lately.

Watch your back man. ;)
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Thanks I appreciate that... I do like this forum and would hate to get banned.
I know Dino's after me. :)
 
Chester

Chester

Senior Member
#118
May 23, 2016
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#118
John146 said:
Please give an example, thanks.
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KJV Ephesians 2:8 - "for by grace are ye saved through faith"

"are" is a present tense in Greek - which conveys the continuation of the action
"saved" is a perfect tense in Greek - which means the action was completed in past time completely with ongoing consequence

So we were saved in past time completely with the present result that we are in a state of salvation that persists through present time

Not that is enough to get me shouting and saying "Hallelujah, thank you Jesus"!
 
Chester

Chester

Senior Member
#119
May 23, 2016
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#119
Micaiah-imla said:
I guess God did not foresee this... :rolleyes:
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Absolutely, God saw all of that and it was in his plan that the New Testament was written at a time period when koine Greek was at the peak of its development. The verb tenses, cases of nouns, etc. and the development of the language makes it one of the easiest and clearest languages to translate from.
 
Chester

Chester

Senior Member
#120
May 23, 2016
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#120
Just reiterating the beginning premise of this thread:

God gave his "exact words" in Hebrew and Greek to the authors of Scripture. Many very reputable and trustworthy translations of the Bible have been done in many languages. But none of these is "inspired" like the original manuscripts were inspired. Inspiration was closed with the writing of the last New Testament book.
 
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