Where is that in Scripture?Angel have no language of their own .
You make many claims that have absolutely no basis in Scripture. Just stop.
Where is that in Scripture?Angel have no language of their own .
OkJesus appeared to them for 40 days so it would be 10 days in the upper room
Of what? I said nothing about a percentage. I said, "None".
Jesus was sent to ethnic Israel. That's plain in the gospels. If you conflate the modern church with 1st century Israel, you're going to make more errors.
Blah blah blah. Irrelevant.
No, He hid the meaning because they did not have faith, not to show the outcome of unbelief.
No He didn't. He sent them to the descendents of Abraham, Jews after the flesh. Some of the Jews become born again through faith in Jesus.
Blah blah blah. Irrelevant.
Where is that in Scripture?
You make many claims that have absolutely no basis in Scripture. Just stop.
I’m not claiming that tongues represents the KJV, I’m claiming that the KJV is written in the tongue of angels - the unknown tongue.
I discovered that F.F. Bruce does interpret "that which is perfect is come" as that state of perfection and knowledge we will have after we are glorified. I knew he would. But I still want to read his commentary on chapters 12-14.Yes! The Global University have a mix of text book authors. The emphasis is on the excellency of the material and I would guess that 75% of my textbooks are not from pentecostals because as you know that is only one area of Biblical Studies. Currently I am doing a class on Romans and the text book (besides Romans of course) is a commentary by F. F. Bruce which is a giant of a scholar but not a pentacostal, and so what. I do not know how he interprets 1 Cor 12-14 I will read his commentary on these chapters but I am going to guess that he interprets them the same way I would, I doubt that he stops being intellectually hones with these chapters. There are some theologians who are great until it comes to anything related to 1) Speaking in tongues or anything pentecostal and 2) Women Preaching, and then they quit using all the rules of hermeneutics they have been championing on every other subject and start using eisegesis instead of exegesis and sometimes I wonder if it they know what they are doing but are afraid of loosing their positions or peer respect if they change their views.
To the list you can also add linguist William Samarin and anthropologist Felicitas Goodman. Both did a considerable amount of work with modern tongues=speech.
Incoherent blather.LOL One was often, the other very rarely . What percentage were very rarely, and the other, often? 37% to 63 % ? Can't divide unbelief from unbelief. 7 more will enter .
No birth certificate or DNA is needed. All continue to fall short of the unseen glory all the days of their temporal life .
No; ethnic Jews. Period. No qualifiers.Abraham whose descendants were the Amorites and Hittites? Who descendants were Abel's the first prophet, apostle and martyr? A member of the bride of Christ.
My goodness, you are stubborn. Read Jesus' words in Matthew 15:24...Jesus was sent to born again Israel.
Do you see your obvious contradiction? As for your assertion, it's rank eisegesis.The father changed her name to Christian in Acts. That's plain in the gospels
I know what I meant, and I wrote what I meant. Don't try to reinterpret my words to justify your confusion.I think you meant He hid the meaning because they did not have Christ faith working to show the outcome of the good pleasure of the Holy Spirit. .
Your chronic incoherence is really acting up today.Blah blah blah. Irrelevant.
That should be easy for you to prove .
Its unknown. Need a interpreter. Here it is.
“Saw lasaw saw lasaw
Qaw laqaw qaw laqaw
Ze’er sham ze’er sham.
Are you wondering. If yes than it has did its work of unbelief .
@Scribe
Why do you put a dislike on anyone who cites real research which shows that tongues are gibberish?
If you disagree with these scholars, your job is to present the findings of other scholars who have shown linguistically that glossalia do fit the standards for a spoken, but unknown language.
Just because these scholars do not agree with your opinions on the subject, is no grounds to dislike what the are saying. Support your opinions with the work of people that are qualified, as these researchers are, who say that all these phenomena are not real languages, as used by people to communicate, but instead are just made up babbling.
As I said before, God can give people a real language, and use it for his glory to share the gospel, but that is rare. I speak quite a few languages, and the babbling that goes on in Pentecostal/charismatic churches does not compare to real languages. I am sure all the scholars mentioned are quite right in asserting that babbling, whether from believers or non-believers, are simply not real languages.
But perhaps there is no research supporting the hypothesis that what goes on in modern charismatic churches (babbling) are languages? I think that is the real problem!
Just because I uphold the King James Bible does not make me a King James cultist. Perhaps you are among the modern version cultists.OP King James cultist accuses The Holy Spirit of sowing division in the church.
It should be obvious to anyone with the least bit of discernment that Paul was simply using hyperbole to teach the tongues-cultists that they had some absurd ideas about the value of tongues. As we know from Scripture, there is no language of angels, but Paul says that even if there was such an exalted language and someone used with, but did not have agape love in his heart, it meant absolutely nothing."If I speak in the tongues of men OR ANGELS"....
Those instructions were given to an apostolic church in the first century, where actual supernatural human languages were being spoken, and therefore needed an interpreter (and Paul insisted that there be an interpreter, otherwise the tongue-speaker must cease and desist).The same one that instructed you NOT to forbid speaking in tongues.
TOTALLY FALSE.Not all tongues are known human languages.
@ Scribe - Why do you put a dislike on anyone who cites real research which shows that tongues are gibberish?
If you disagree with these scholars, your job is to present the findings of other scholars who have shown linguistically that glossalia do fit the standards for a spoken, but unknown language.
For 20 years he prayed in tongues that he did not understand.
These linguistic research rebuttals are useless to those who speak in tongues. It only makes sense to people who do not understand how the Holy Spirit Gift of tongues works.
It is annoying to hear a long winded argument trying to prove something based on an foundational error of interpretation.
Unnecessary and inflammatory. You're welcome to make assertions about yourself; there is no need to slander others.Just because I uphold the King James Bible does not make me a King James cultist. Perhaps you are among the modern version cultists.
You make the claim, so you can back it up, right? Wrong. Nothing in Scripture says or even hints that "there is no language of angels". It's a fallacious argument from silence.It should be obvious to anyone with the least bit of discernment that Paul was simply using hyperbole to teach the tongues-cultists that they had some absurd ideas about the value of tongues. As we know from Scripture, there is no language of angels,
Wrong again. Paul's instruction was that, in the absence of an interpreter, the tongue-speaker speak to himself and to God (v.28).Those instructions were given to an apostolic church in the first century, where actual supernatural human languages were being spoken, and therefore needed an interpreter (and Paul insisted that there be an interpreter, otherwise the tongue-speaker must cease and desist).
You're assuming that Acts 2 is restrictively exemplary. Nothing in Scripture supports that theory. When Cornelius spoke in tongues, there was no record of anyone hearing him in their own language. When Paul talks about speaking in tongues, there is no mention of others hearing him in their own language. Same thing in Acts 19."Not all tongues are known human languages. "
TOTALLY FALSE.
Acts 2 shows that at least fifteen human lnaguages and dialects were being spoken, and there is no change when it comes to the Corinthian church. The same Greek words with the same meaning are used throughout. And here is the evidence....
If the KJV is written in an unknown tongue, or the tongue of angels, then no one but an angel could read it!
that is a weak argument to base simply on the word tongues. Others did not hear them in their own language and thought they were babeling so they accused them of being drunk. There is no way you can proove the greek means KNOWN, it simply means a tongue. This has been widely discussed by scholars and most agree that there is no way to proove tongue is a known language, it could apply to known or unknown there is nothing in the word that enforces that it be known. You are assuming it is known because of Acts 2 but you conveniently leave out the fact that some did not hear in their known tongue and thought they were drunk. Unless you addressed that and I have not read your post yet.Just because I uphold the King James Bible does not make me a King James cultist. Perhaps you are among the modern version cultists.
It should be obvious to anyone with the least bit of discernment that Paul was simply using hyperbole to teach the tongues-cultists that they had some absurd ideas about the value of tongues. As we know from Scripture, there is no language of angels, but Paul says that even if there was such an exalted language and someone used with, but did not have agape love in his heart, it meant absolutely nothing.
Those instructions were given to an apostolic church in the first century, where actual supernatural human languages were being spoken, and therefore needed an interpreter (and Paul insisted that there be an interpreter, otherwise the tongue-speaker must cease and desist).
TOTALLY FALSE.
Acts 2 shows that at least fifteen human lnaguages and dialects were being spoken, and there is no change when it comes to the Corinthian church. The same Greek words with the same meaning are used throughout. And here is the evidence.
And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues [Greek glossais* = languages], as the Spirit gave them utterance. (Acts 2:4)
Now, brethren, if I come unto you speaking with tongues [Greek glossais* = languages] , what shall I profit you, except I shall speak to you either by revelation, or by knowledge, or by prophesying, or by doctrine? (1 Cor 14:6)
STRONG'S
*the language or dialect used by a particular people distinct from that of other nations
Just look up a time line for Paul. It was believed he was converted around 36 AD. We know he spoke in tongues more than all the Corinthians and when did he start? If we take all the other examples it would have been when Ananais laid hands on him to receive the Holy Ghost. It is believed he wrote 1 Cor about 56AD He had been praying in tongues (1 Cor 14:14) for 20 years.Where are you getting this from??
It does not work that way. The Holy Spirit does not play along with skeptics attempt to test Him. I would never speak in tongues for skeptic, nor would I submit to some kind of test or recording. Nor would I attempt to interpret tongues from a recording someone submitted. I have interpreted as the Spirit gave me the ability in a church service and I have spoken in tongues and someone else has interpreted. When the Holy Spirit moves in the moment it will be a manifestation that brings glory to Jesus Christ and all will be edified.Perhaps you could post a short sound clip - about a minute - of your tongues-speech?