Whatever works for you. However, I'm not Jewish, and you ain't Jesus.Forgive me if I don’t care what you think about my credibility. Jesus had no credibility with the with Jews and they killed him.
Whatever works for you. However, I'm not Jewish, and you ain't Jesus.Forgive me if I don’t care what you think about my credibility. Jesus had no credibility with the with Jews and they killed him.
The Jews of Jesus' day did indeed refuse to hear. However, Christians in 2020 are not Jews in AD 30-odd. Don't confuse the two.I would add "unwilling" or "refuse" to hear and therefore believe. They simply refuse to hear prophecy in any tongue.
Identifying unbelieving mankind)
1 Corinthians 14; 21 In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they "not" hear me, saith the Lord.
Respectfully, it's comments like this that destroy your credibility. That is no evidence of inspiration at all! It's entirely subjective and circular.
Paul was converted about 36AD and wrote 1 Corinthians about 56AD if after praying in tongues for 20 years he still did not know what he was saying it was not likely that it was a known tongue. Someone hearing him in all that time had not identified it or translated words so that he knew what he was saying. (if your theory was correct that would have been the case)The KJV translators believed they were doing a service to the reader by adding "unknown" to tongues. "Unlearned" would have been more appropriate. But that word was absent from the Greek text, and it is the Greek that was inspired, not the KJV.
Had they simply left well enough alone, it might have been better. And had they used the word "language" rather than "tongue" the whole modern controversy would not exist. Modern tongues are not known human languages.
The Jews of Jesus' day did indeed refuse to hear. However, Christians in 2020 are not Jews in AD 30-odd. Don't confuse the two.
They do not know what the manifestation of speaking in tongues is, and it seems they do not want to know what it is. They're happier just denying it. It's easier.Paul was converted about 36AD and wrote 1 Corinthians about 56AD if after praying in tongues for 20 years he still did not know what he was saying it was not likely that it was a known tongue. Someone hearing him in all that time had not identified it or translated words so that he knew what he was saying. (if your theory was correct that would have been the case)
Paul was converted about 36AD and wrote 1 Corinthians about 56AD if after praying in tongues for 20 years he still did not know what he was saying it was not likely that it was a known tongue. Someone hearing him in all that time had not identified it or translated words so that he knew what he was saying. (if your theory was correct that would have been the case)
They do not know what the manifestation of speaking in tongues is, and it seems they do not want to know what it is. They're happier just denying it. It's easier.
Don't repeat my words back to me, please. It's something a snotty child would do because he lacks the intelligence to articulate an original response.its not about Jew but is about unbelief, no faith coming from hearing God in all of mankind .The kind that does not believe any language of any nation. Don't confuse the two. Its not Jesus picking on the Jews. But like in Jerimiah those who certainly will do whosoever there own mouth says .They stop up their ears refusing to hear .
They do not know what the manifestation of speaking in tongues is, and it seems they do not want to know what it is. They're happier just denying it. It's easier.
I will no longer be responding to you, garee. Good luck with whatever it is you believe.It would be much easier if they knew what the Holy Spirit was saying. It takes all the wondering. marveling and guess work out of it. Called truth .Prophecy the tongue of God sets a person free from the unknown .I did it.
What parable? We weren't discussion a parable.The evidence is in the context of the parable .Completing the circuit of circular reasoning.
1Co 13:1 (KJV) Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, and have not charity, I am become as sounding brass, or a tinkling cymbal.
So your saying that the tongue of angels is just another earthly language?
Actually modern tongues have been closely examined by many and they know that they are not human languages. Here us some evidence:They do not know what the manifestation of speaking in tongues is, and it seems they do not want to know what it is.
I received the gift of speaking in tongues 43 years ago, it's verbal that comes from my human tongue and mouth, your claim this represents the KJV bible is another false claimIf you don’t realize that you are the woman and Christ is the husband then you’re in pretty bad shape spiritually. That’s one of the most basic tenants of Christianity.
But I think I get it. The verses I brought up were written in tongues and yet don’t speak in tongues yet.
First get that heart circumcised so you can understand the KJV, then you can speak in tongues too. Hurry before it’s too late, things are about to go DRASTICALLY bad in this world.
"If I speak in the tongues of men OR ANGELS".............The KJV translators believed they were doing a service to the reader by adding "unknown" to tongues. "Unlearned" would have been more appropriate. But that word was absent from the Greek text, and it is the Greek that was inspired, not the KJV.
Had they simply left well enough alone, it might have been better. And had they used the word "language" rather than "tongue" the whole modern controversy would not exist. Modern tongues are not known human languages.
Yes, I know it is Page. But I felt bad to make 2 corrections there.
Don't repeat my words back to me, please. It's something a snotty child would do because he lacks the intelligence to articulate an original response.
You are mixing up verses directed at unbelieving Jews with verses directed to Christians. Christians don't lack faith.
Jesus was indeed "picking" on the unbelieving Jews... the scribes and Pharisees who claimed to know the Scriptures but couldn't see the truth when it stood in front of them.
I agree, Of men AND of angels puts tongues as the language of the angels.From the Greek:
Ἐὰν ταῖς γλώσσαις τῶν ἀνθρώπων λαλῶ καὶ τῶν ἀγγέλων, ἀγάπην δὲ μὴ ἔχω, γέγονα χαλκὸς ἠχῶν ἢ κύμβαλον ἀλαλάζον.
1 If I should be speaking in the languages of men and of the messengers, yet should have no love, I have become resounding copper or a clanging cymbal.
and of the messengers, would appear to be meaning Angels, since men is listed alongside.
I’m not claiming that tongues represents the KJV, I’m claiming that the KJV is written in the tongue of angels - the unknown tongue.I received the gift of speaking in tongues 43 years ago, it's verbal that comes from my human tongue and mouth, your claim this represents the KJV bible is another false claim