You as Moderator can call me lier, hater, mocker and scoffer? If I do so. Then at least show me where I do it. Only because I do not agree with an doctrine which I cant find in the bible taught?
And it is not true. You did not show me an Single proof that this was taught.: Speaking in tongues as proof that someone is baptised with the Holy Spirit.
You showed me where speaking in tongues where taking place. But this was not my question!
If I am, what you are claim about me, then ban me.
And if you dont want that non tonguespeaker join your thread. Then please next time write this in your thread.
Let us start with the question "what was common in each of these examples?"
Acts 2
1And when the day of Pentecost was fully come, they were all with one accord in one place.
2And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house where they were sitting.
3And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them.
4And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.
Acts 10
44While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word.
45And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost.
46For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God.
Acts 19
6And when Paul had laid
his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.
7And all the men were about twelve
We see that there were differences in each event and also something common to each. There were cloven tongues of fire in only one event that we read of. There was magnifying God in another event, and prophesying in another. However, ALL THREE of these events included speaking in tongues. That is strong evidence that the message we should receive is that tongues is to be expected whenever the Baptism of the Holy Spirit is given. (This is not the same as receiving the Holy Spirit upon regeneration which every christian receives when they are born again) You do not have to speak in tongues to be saved. You do have the Holy Spirit when you are saved. The Baptism of the Holy Spirit in scripture came on believers after they were saved.
What was common to each event? Tongues. In the mouth of two or three witnesses let every word be established. This repetition of the gift of tongues being common to these events is a strong message to the reader that it was a normative experience for those who experienced the Baptism of the Holy Spirit that the visible manifestation was that they spoke in tongues. This is made even more clear when
Peter says they knew that they had received the outpouring of the Holy Ghost "For they heard them speak with tongues" By making this statement Peter is saying that this was the evidence that they had same experience that Peter had on Pentecost.
This is the scripture that says that speaking in tongues is the evidence that one has been baptized in the Holy Ghost like Peter was.
The ball is now in your court. Please address Peter's statement and explain how it is NOT the same as Peter saying that tongues is the evidence that one has had the "poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost" / Baptism of the Holy Ghost / same thing as what happened in the day of Pentecost (whatever phrase you prefer) experience.