What I said is, the text states that "the dead in Christ SHALL RISE [/be resurrected (defined as: 'to stand again on the earth')] FIRST".
"THEN [epeita ('ONLY then')] we which are ALIVE and remain unto... shall be CAUGHT UP [/harpazo'd/snatched/raptured] TOGETHER [<--this word connects with THAT VERB-ACTION, so meaning 'CAUGHT UP TOGETHER at the same time'] with them [i.e. 'AS ONE,' the 'ONE BODY'] in the clouds TO/UNTO the meeting [noun] of the Lord IN THE AIR..." (so, this is saying after they rise first/are resurrected first, THEN we TOGETHER will be "caught up/away" AS ONE... which is completely DISTINCT from the manner in which Matt24:29-31's "gather" takes place when you place its parallel [Isaiah 27:12-13] alongside it: "ye shall be gathered ONE BY ONE, O ye children of Israel..." [and Matt24:29-31 says, by ANGELS "He shall SEND" to do so]... "the GREAT TRUMPET shall be blown... and they shall come... and shall worship the Lord in the holy mount AT JERUSALEM"--in every way DISTINCT from that of "our Rapture" event.)
Basically, I think you are inadvertently conflating the words "shall rise" (or be "resurrected") with the word "rapture/caught-up/snatched/harpazo'd" which is a distinct thing (tho generally at the same time, when it comes to that which takes place concerning us/"the Church WHICH IS HIS BODY"...
Keep in mind that "RAPTURE" pertains SOLELY to "the Church WHICH IS HIS BODY," NOT to all other saints of all OTHER time periods (NOT to OT saints, NOT to Trib saints, NOT to MK saints).
A few things to keep in mind:
--"resurrection" YES (but bear in mind, "[re: resurrection] but each IN HIS OWN ORDER" which phrase is saying that there doesn't remain ONLY ONE, at ONE POINT IN TIME... and recall that the 2W will be "resurrected" at the time of the "6th Trumpet[events]/2nd Woe, at a time distinct from when all others will be); ... "resurrection" [not merely one point in time, but a FEW], not "RAPTURE": ONLY one point in time]
--"the Last Day" is not "a singular 24-hr day" (I went into that in other posts, but study again Hosea 5:14-6:3's "after TWO days," and "IN the THIRD day" [not "24-hr days" and context re: Israel])
--your verse/verses says/say: "AT/IN the last day" (but "The Last Day" is a lengthy period of time with MUCH that transpires WITHIN it... ["IN WHICH" in various passages, including Acts17:31nasb, "...He has FIXED [/ESTABLISHED] a day IN WHICH He will JUDGE the world in righteousness in a Man whom He has appointed..." but when you compare this with, say, Psalm 98:9, "before the LORD, for He comes to judge the earth. He will judge the world with righteousness and the peoples with equity," you can begin to see that this is not speaking MERELY of "a singular 24-hr day," but of His "governance" [involving a looooooong spans of TIME, like we see in Daniel 7:27 [following the specific time-period in v.25], "the greatness of the kingdom UNDER the whole heaven... and ALL dominions shall serve and obey Him"]... which is the distinction between the "persons" of/to which John 6:40 refers, and the "things" of/to which John 6:39 refers, see)
Ditto some of the above.
Biblically, the word "RETURN" (re: Jesus) speaks ONLY of His Second Coming to the earth Rev19 (which is Subject what the Olivet Discourse is covering, among many other passages like Lk12:36-37,38,40,42-44 "when he will RETURN FROM the wedding"... THEN the meal [G347]; and Lk19:12,15,17, 19 "RETURN" and the passages parallel to these... and numerous others I've listed. NONE of which are speaking of the Subject of "our Rapture" [disclosed and explained elsewhere]).
When it comes to His "RETURN," that is correct. But His "RETURN" is not "our Rapture" (nor at the same moment, or point-in-time in the "chronology")
I've endeavored to point out a few places where you've conflated two distinct issues.
We are called to "correctly apportion the word of truth" (not lumping everything into one big mish-mash of mush!), and to be distinguishing the things which differ... Can you, for example, explain the reasons for what Paul had put in 1Th5:10[6] that I spelled out in a previous post [will try to find that Post #], about the words "WATCH" and "SLEEP" (in vv.10 and 6, the SAME TWO GREEK WORDS in BOTH of these TWO VERSES, 6 & 10), when that is something DISTINCT from what Jesus had said in, say, His Olivet Discourse.
Your viewpoint cannot explain this distinction ^ . Mine can and does, quite well. (Yours [your "viewpoint," on the whole, not 'you' personally
] pretty much entirely disregards what Paul put there in that passage I'm pointing out. My view DOES NOT, but explains it instead.
"THEN [epeita ('ONLY then')] we which are ALIVE and remain unto... shall be CAUGHT UP [/harpazo'd/snatched/raptured] TOGETHER [<--this word connects with THAT VERB-ACTION, so meaning 'CAUGHT UP TOGETHER at the same time'] with them [i.e. 'AS ONE,' the 'ONE BODY'] in the clouds TO/UNTO the meeting [noun] of the Lord IN THE AIR..." (so, this is saying after they rise first/are resurrected first, THEN we TOGETHER will be "caught up/away" AS ONE... which is completely DISTINCT from the manner in which Matt24:29-31's "gather" takes place when you place its parallel [Isaiah 27:12-13] alongside it: "ye shall be gathered ONE BY ONE, O ye children of Israel..." [and Matt24:29-31 says, by ANGELS "He shall SEND" to do so]... "the GREAT TRUMPET shall be blown... and they shall come... and shall worship the Lord in the holy mount AT JERUSALEM"--in every way DISTINCT from that of "our Rapture" event.)
Basically, I think you are inadvertently conflating the words "shall rise" (or be "resurrected") with the word "rapture/caught-up/snatched/harpazo'd" which is a distinct thing (tho generally at the same time, when it comes to that which takes place concerning us/"the Church WHICH IS HIS BODY"...
Keep in mind that "RAPTURE" pertains SOLELY to "the Church WHICH IS HIS BODY," NOT to all other saints of all OTHER time periods (NOT to OT saints, NOT to Trib saints, NOT to MK saints).
A few things to keep in mind:
--"resurrection" YES (but bear in mind, "[re: resurrection] but each IN HIS OWN ORDER" which phrase is saying that there doesn't remain ONLY ONE, at ONE POINT IN TIME... and recall that the 2W will be "resurrected" at the time of the "6th Trumpet[events]/2nd Woe, at a time distinct from when all others will be); ... "resurrection" [not merely one point in time, but a FEW], not "RAPTURE": ONLY one point in time]
--"the Last Day" is not "a singular 24-hr day" (I went into that in other posts, but study again Hosea 5:14-6:3's "after TWO days," and "IN the THIRD day" [not "24-hr days" and context re: Israel])
--your verse/verses says/say: "AT/IN the last day" (but "The Last Day" is a lengthy period of time with MUCH that transpires WITHIN it... ["IN WHICH" in various passages, including Acts17:31nasb, "...He has FIXED [/ESTABLISHED] a day IN WHICH He will JUDGE the world in righteousness in a Man whom He has appointed..." but when you compare this with, say, Psalm 98:9, "before the LORD, for He comes to judge the earth. He will judge the world with righteousness and the peoples with equity," you can begin to see that this is not speaking MERELY of "a singular 24-hr day," but of His "governance" [involving a looooooong spans of TIME, like we see in Daniel 7:27 [following the specific time-period in v.25], "the greatness of the kingdom UNDER the whole heaven... and ALL dominions shall serve and obey Him"]... which is the distinction between the "persons" of/to which John 6:40 refers, and the "things" of/to which John 6:39 refers, see)
Ditto some of the above.
Biblically, the word "RETURN" (re: Jesus) speaks ONLY of His Second Coming to the earth Rev19 (which is Subject what the Olivet Discourse is covering, among many other passages like Lk12:36-37,38,40,42-44 "when he will RETURN FROM the wedding"... THEN the meal [G347]; and Lk19:12,15,17, 19 "RETURN" and the passages parallel to these... and numerous others I've listed. NONE of which are speaking of the Subject of "our Rapture" [disclosed and explained elsewhere]).
When it comes to His "RETURN," that is correct. But His "RETURN" is not "our Rapture" (nor at the same moment, or point-in-time in the "chronology")
I've endeavored to point out a few places where you've conflated two distinct issues.
We are called to "correctly apportion the word of truth" (not lumping everything into one big mish-mash of mush!), and to be distinguishing the things which differ... Can you, for example, explain the reasons for what Paul had put in 1Th5:10[6] that I spelled out in a previous post [will try to find that Post #], about the words "WATCH" and "SLEEP" (in vv.10 and 6, the SAME TWO GREEK WORDS in BOTH of these TWO VERSES, 6 & 10), when that is something DISTINCT from what Jesus had said in, say, His Olivet Discourse.
Your viewpoint cannot explain this distinction ^ . Mine can and does, quite well. (Yours [your "viewpoint," on the whole, not 'you' personally
] pretty much entirely disregards what Paul put there in that passage I'm pointing out. My view DOES NOT, but explains it instead.-
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