Is YOUR church doctrinal statement ONE with SATAN?
- Thread starter ChosenbyHim
- Start date
-
Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.
If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!
To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
You greatly underestimate the power of God, God can make a dumb ass speak. Also you are admitting that you don't know for sure who was in the furnace.
It's not about winning or losing, it's about FACTS. The whole context of that story is that when the NWO sends in the Antifa army of CV19 released prisoners and thugs to bring Social Justice to the United States, Jesus will be there for us, we wont even smell like smoke.
It's not about winning or losing, it's about FACTS. The whole context of that story is that when the NWO sends in the Antifa army of CV19 released prisoners and thugs to bring Social Justice to the United States, Jesus will be there for us, we wont even smell like smoke.
So here are the facts...
409 Years ago the translation ordered by the (secular) King was finished. Aside from the fact that the translation was created specifically to please one man, it was "authorized" by him to be the only official Bible of his realm. (Some fled to this continent, Geneva Bibles in hand, to escape this heresy.)
And so it became the Bible of the realm and, even after King James was gone, it was considered for some (unjustifiable) reason to be the pure Word of God. (A translation, mind you). Whenever people bought and read "the Bible" it was almost exclusively the KJV. It was the universal English Bible, the one found in (almost) every home and church; it was the version your great-great-grandparents owned, the version that your great-grandparents owned, and the Bible that your parents owned. Everywhere you went, there was the KJV.
Some misguided people began to think that because the KJV was ubiquitous, it must be the perfect rendition of the ancient languages.
Then along came KJV revisions that were not in total agreement with the 1611 translation, as well as other original translations. Oh my, said the KJVOs, those new translations can't be THE Word of God because they are different than the version in my great-great-grandparents' home, my great-grandparents' home, my grandparents' home, and my parents' home. => All because an English king declared that the translation he ordered was the only pure Bible <=
It is incomprehensible that people still say that the KJV is the Word of God, when it is simply a single translation. God didn't dictate the KJV! There are many more source documents than there were 400 years ago, a far better knowledge of ancient Hebrew, Aramaic, and koine Greek, and a thorough understanding of contemporary English. All good translations were/are created for the readers to understand what the ancient languages said and meant.
As language changes and society changes it is imperative that new translations are created to have the meaning of God's word understood in the language that people speak, read, and write in their daily lives. There is absolutely no reason to continue to use an archaic translation simply because that's the one found in every home and church centuries ago. We don't live, think, read, or write the way people did 400+ years ago; why should a translation that was meant for the people living centuries ago be retained?
409 Years ago the translation ordered by the (secular) King was finished. Aside from the fact that the translation was created specifically to please one man, it was "authorized" by him to be the only official Bible of his realm. (Some fled to this continent, Geneva Bibles in hand, to escape this heresy.)
And so it became the Bible of the realm and, even after King James was gone, it was considered for some (unjustifiable) reason to be the pure Word of God. (A translation, mind you). Whenever people bought and read "the Bible" it was almost exclusively the KJV. It was the universal English Bible, the one found in (almost) every home and church; it was the version your great-great-grandparents owned, the version that your great-grandparents owned, and the Bible that your parents owned. Everywhere you went, there was the KJV.
Some misguided people began to think that because the KJV was ubiquitous, it must be the perfect rendition of the ancient languages.
Then along came KJV revisions that were not in total agreement with the 1611 translation, as well as other original translations. Oh my, said the KJVOs, those new translations can't be THE Word of God because they are different than the version in my great-great-grandparents' home, my great-grandparents' home, my grandparents' home, and my parents' home. => All because an English king declared that the translation he ordered was the only pure Bible <=
It is incomprehensible that people still say that the KJV is the Word of God, when it is simply a single translation. God didn't dictate the KJV! There are many more source documents than there were 400 years ago, a far better knowledge of ancient Hebrew, Aramaic, and koine Greek, and a thorough understanding of contemporary English. All good translations were/are created for the readers to understand what the ancient languages said and meant.
As language changes and society changes it is imperative that new translations are created to have the meaning of God's word understood in the language that people speak, read, and write in their daily lives. There is absolutely no reason to continue to use an archaic translation simply because that's the one found in every home and church centuries ago. We don't live, think, read, or write the way people did 400+ years ago; why should a translation that was meant for the people living centuries ago be retained?
I fell for that one before, I admit. The proper question isn't if He can, because you can ask that literally about anything, so that's a logical fallacy, using omnipotence of God as automatic proof for all your presuppositions. The question is whether God intended to or not? What if God only preserved His word to the extent that would carry the message on correctly and get the job done? Because a perfect book doesn't get the job done, it took Jesus to get the job done. The book was only the plan and program.
Zephaniah 3:9
“For then will I turn to the people a pure language, that they may all call upon the name of the LORD, to serve him with one consent.”
He's not talking about English or Hebrew or Greek. Earthly languages are not pure enough to carry the completeness of His truth out. Why bring a pure communication if the existing languages can transmit God's ideas purely and perfectly?
Zephaniah 3:9
“For then will I turn to the people a pure language, that they may all call upon the name of the LORD, to serve him with one consent.”
He's not talking about English or Hebrew or Greek. Earthly languages are not pure enough to carry the completeness of His truth out. Why bring a pure communication if the existing languages can transmit God's ideas purely and perfectly?
Do you have any valid source of information to support your right-wing ideology? It's obvious that you don't have a clue about Antifa -- an organization that doesn't exist -- and who the protesters are.
Where in the KJV does it mention Antifa, CV19 prisoners, thugs, etc? In other words, since you can't show it in Scripture, even in the flawed KJV, it's all in your head.
Where in the KJV does it mention Antifa, CV19 prisoners, thugs, etc? In other words, since you can't show it in Scripture, even in the flawed KJV, it's all in your head.
I haven't underestimated anything, and I am not admitting anything of the sort. Kindly stop making assumptions about what I know.
Really. A couple of pages back, you were all about telling people what you know because you love them, then you were telling everyone how much you know and they don't. Now it's about facts. Get your integrity sorted out, and your statements will follow with consistency.
I'm not in the US, so your illustration is as laughably irrelevant to me as the KJV is to Chinese Christians... and to most English-speaking Christians as well.
Really. A couple of pages back, you were all about telling people what you know because you love them, then you were telling everyone how much you know and they don't. Now it's about facts. Get your integrity sorted out, and your statements will follow with consistency.
I'm not in the US, so your illustration is as laughably irrelevant to me as the KJV is to Chinese Christians... and to most English-speaking Christians as well.
PAY SPECIFIC ATTENTION TO VERSE 7:
From the KJV:
7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
Now, look at verse 7 in the Aramaic, the Greek, the Latin Vulgate which are all at least 1,100 years OLDER than and written BEFORE the KJV:
1 John 5:6-8
Aramaic:
ܗܢܘ ܕܐܬܐ ܒܝܕ ܡܝܐ ܘܕܡܐ ܝܫܘܥ ܡܫܝܚܐ ܠܐ ܗܘܐ ܒܡܝܐ ܒܠܚܘܕ ܐܠܐ ܒܡܝܐ ܘܕܡܐ
6 This is The One who came by means of The Water and The Blood; Eshu Meshikha {Yeshua, The Anointed One}. It wasn't of The Water alone, but rather, by The Water and The Blood.
ܘܪܘܚܐ ܡܣܗܕܐ ܕܗܝ ܪܘܚܐ ܐܝܬܝܗ ܫܪܪܐ
7 And The Rukha {The Spirit} testifies; because that One, The Rukha {The Spirit}, is The Truth.
ܘܐܝܬܝܗܘܢ ܬܠܬܐ ܣܗܕܝܢ ܪܘܚܐ ܘܡܝܐ ܘܕܡܐ ܘܬܠܬܝܗܘܢ ܒܚܕ ܐܢܘܢ
8 And there are three testifying: The Rukha {The Spirit}, and The Water, and The Blood. And these three are in One.
^
nowhere is the Father-Son-Holy Spirit listed like the English add in.
Greek:
6 This is He Who is coming through water and blood and spirit - Jesus Christ - not in the water only, but in the water and in the blood. And the spirit it is which is testifying, for the spirit is the truth,
7 seeing that three there are that are testifying,
8 the spirit, and the water, and the blood, and the three are for the one thing."
^
nowhere is the Father-Son-Holy Spirit listed like the English add in.
Latin Vulgate:
6 hic est qui venit per aquam et sanguinem Iesus Christus non in aqua solum sed in aqua et sanguine et Spiritus est qui testificatur quoniam Christus est veritas
This is he that came by water and blood, Jesus Christ: not by water only but by water and blood. And it is the Spirit which testifieth that Christ is the truth.
7 quia tres sunt qui testimonium dant
And there are Three who give testimony
8 Spiritus et aqua et sanguis et tres unum sunt
the spirit and the water and the blood. And these three are one.
^
nowhere is the Father-Son-Holy Spirit listed like the English add in.
If these Manuscripts came before the KJV, why doesn't the KJV say specifically the same thing from what it was translated from?
From the KJV:
7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
Now, look at verse 7 in the Aramaic, the Greek, the Latin Vulgate which are all at least 1,100 years OLDER than and written BEFORE the KJV:
1 John 5:6-8
Aramaic:
ܗܢܘ ܕܐܬܐ ܒܝܕ ܡܝܐ ܘܕܡܐ ܝܫܘܥ ܡܫܝܚܐ ܠܐ ܗܘܐ ܒܡܝܐ ܒܠܚܘܕ ܐܠܐ ܒܡܝܐ ܘܕܡܐ
6 This is The One who came by means of The Water and The Blood; Eshu Meshikha {Yeshua, The Anointed One}. It wasn't of The Water alone, but rather, by The Water and The Blood.
ܘܪܘܚܐ ܡܣܗܕܐ ܕܗܝ ܪܘܚܐ ܐܝܬܝܗ ܫܪܪܐ
7 And The Rukha {The Spirit} testifies; because that One, The Rukha {The Spirit}, is The Truth.
ܘܐܝܬܝܗܘܢ ܬܠܬܐ ܣܗܕܝܢ ܪܘܚܐ ܘܡܝܐ ܘܕܡܐ ܘܬܠܬܝܗܘܢ ܒܚܕ ܐܢܘܢ
8 And there are three testifying: The Rukha {The Spirit}, and The Water, and The Blood. And these three are in One.
^
nowhere is the Father-Son-Holy Spirit listed like the English add in.
Greek:
6 This is He Who is coming through water and blood and spirit - Jesus Christ - not in the water only, but in the water and in the blood. And the spirit it is which is testifying, for the spirit is the truth,
7 seeing that three there are that are testifying,
8 the spirit, and the water, and the blood, and the three are for the one thing."
^
nowhere is the Father-Son-Holy Spirit listed like the English add in.
Latin Vulgate:
6 hic est qui venit per aquam et sanguinem Iesus Christus non in aqua solum sed in aqua et sanguine et Spiritus est qui testificatur quoniam Christus est veritas
This is he that came by water and blood, Jesus Christ: not by water only but by water and blood. And it is the Spirit which testifieth that Christ is the truth.
7 quia tres sunt qui testimonium dant
And there are Three who give testimony
8 Spiritus et aqua et sanguis et tres unum sunt
the spirit and the water and the blood. And these three are one.
^
nowhere is the Father-Son-Holy Spirit listed like the English add in.
If these Manuscripts came before the KJV, why doesn't the KJV say specifically the same thing from what it was translated from?
ChosenbyHim,
Why did the KJV writers add to the Word of God when God was specific not to add to His WORD?
To some degree, why are the KJV writers LYING?
Is LYING an attribute of God that we should apply to our lives?
If I believe some of the LIES found in the KJV, what would happen if I applied those LIES to my life?
Would I be YOU?
Why did the KJV writers add to the Word of God when God was specific not to add to His WORD?
To some degree, why are the KJV writers LYING?
Is LYING an attribute of God that we should apply to our lives?
If I believe some of the LIES found in the KJV, what would happen if I applied those LIES to my life?
Would I be YOU?
-
1
- Show all
Another rendition of Zephaniah 3:9...
Know for sure that I will then enable
the nations to give me acceptable praise.
All of them will invoke the Lord’s name when they pray,
and will worship him in unison.
Translator's note on the end of line 2, "acceptable praise"... "Certainly [or perhaps, “For” then I will restore to the nations a pure lip.” [literal Hebrew] I will then enable the nations to give me acceptable praise. This apparently refers to a time when the nations will reject their false idol-gods and offer genuine praise to the one true God.
Know for sure that I will then enable
the nations to give me acceptable praise.
All of them will invoke the Lord’s name when they pray,
and will worship him in unison.
Translator's note on the end of line 2, "acceptable praise"... "Certainly [or perhaps, “For” then I will restore to the nations a pure lip.” [literal Hebrew] I will then enable the nations to give me acceptable praise. This apparently refers to a time when the nations will reject their false idol-gods and offer genuine praise to the one true God.
Politics is such a muddy mess any more.
Trump gets elected and a FALSE Document mysteriously appears.
People for the first 6 months of Trump's Presidency protested and who paid for that?
The Mueller Debacle was an actual no show.
Now that Biden is running, all of his females who were touched wrong are speaking up.
And now with Police going off onto their own tangents we mysteriously have ANTIFA.
It's sounds like a recipe for the Tribulation to take place and for the BEAST to take over!
Trump gets elected and a FALSE Document mysteriously appears.
People for the first 6 months of Trump's Presidency protested and who paid for that?
The Mueller Debacle was an actual no show.
Now that Biden is running, all of his females who were touched wrong are speaking up.
And now with Police going off onto their own tangents we mysteriously have ANTIFA.
It's sounds like a recipe for the Tribulation to take place and for the BEAST to take over!
-
1
- Show all