Do I need to bold that it specifies deeds of the law? The whole purpose of Romans is not to be a theological treatise on how man is to be saved, as many seem to presuppose, but an occasional letter for a church that was dividing itself up by those who were subject to the law(the Jewish church) and those who weren't(the gentile church). Paul here is stating that it is not by accounting of the law, that is to say the prescriptions of Moses, that one finds righteousness. Yet we find Paul confessing elsewhere "For it is not those who hear the law who are righteous in God's sight, but it is those who obey the law who will be declared righteous. " and "seriously this is really useful obvious question to ask: how do we get to Romans 6:1.
why does Romans 6:1 ask what it asks; why is that the logical question that needs to be addressed based on Romans 1-5?
what's in Romans 1-5?
we conclude that a man is justified by faith apart from the deeds of the law.(Romans 3:28)to him who does not work but believes on Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is accounted for righteousness, just as David also describes the blessedness of the man to whom God imputes righteousness apart from works:“Blessed are those whose lawless deeds are forgiven,And whose sins are covered;Blessed is the man to whom the Lord shall not impute sin.”(Romans 4:5-8)what is this doing in my Bible if a faith, a righteousness, a justification apart from works is no faith at all, no righteousness at all, no justification at all? what does this have to do with Romans 6:1 ?
God "will repay each person according to what they have done." and "For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ, so that each one may be recompensed for his deeds in the body, according to what he has done, whether good or bad. " So if Paul meant to teach that what we do doesn't matter and instead we are merely judged based on some acceptance of an ephemeral truth he provided much confusion.