Tell me this:
Why do the Apostles follow Luke's version in the Book of Acts but Matthew's version is NOT FOLLOWED ANYWHERE WITHIN THE NEW TESTAMENT by the Apostles or anyone listed?
It looks to me like it does occur in the Greek text. Which Greek text are you looking at?The (Girl. Get up) is add in long after the Greek translation. It's not specified what it means in the Greek text, it's only defined in the English texts. Which generally would mean the English looked it up from the Aramaic.
I believe Matthew 28 and Luke 24 are referring to two different events.This is true, but the ending of both Matthew and Luke have Jesus giving final commands to His Disciples before Ascending. And both accounts Matthew 28:19/Luke 24:47 should be word for word or at least similar. But from Luke's version, we understand why the Apostles baptized in Jesus Name in the Book of Acts. From Matthews added in later on version, it appears as if the Apostles are disobeying Christ. So yes, there is a big difference and it reveals foolery has taken place!
It looks to me like it does occur in the Greek text. Which Greek text are you looking at?
καὶ κρατήσας τῆς χειρὸς τοῦ παιδίου λέγει αὐτῇ· Ταλιθα [aw]κουμ, ὅ ἐστιν μεθερμηνευόμενον· Τὸ κοράσιον, σοὶ λέγω, [ax]ἔγειρε.
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Mark+5&version=SBLGNT
That's probably true, but are these the same scholars that say that most of what is in the Gospels didn't actually happen?Just do a random check for yourself. You will see literally hundreds of scholars claiming the Matthew 28:19 we currently have was not what Matthew 28:19 originally claimed.
I believe Matthew 28 and Luke 24 are referring to two different events.
After his resurrection, Jesus appears to his disciples over a period of 40 days.
Matthew 28 takes place in Galilee, Luke 24 takes place near Jerusalem.
I agree that Matthew 28 presents a different formulation for baptism then the book of Acts does.
But I think any problem goes away when one realizes that the phrase "in the name of" can easily mean "based on the reputation of".
Yes, technically the SBLGNT is less than 100 years old.Yes, and the version you are reading is less than 100 years old. Meaning, they used another form of Greek, not Koine for (little girl, arise)
Aramaic:
Talitha cum
to Greek Translation:
Ταλίτα cum
Greek:
Ταλίτα cum
to English :
Talita cum
You have to directly translate from Aramaic in order to know it means Girl, arise!
English:
little girl, arise
to Greek Translation:
κοριτσάκι, σηκωθείτε
English:
little girl, arise
to Aramaic Translation:
Talita cum
You cannot translate Talita cum from Aramaic to Greek, but you can translate Aramaic to English and then to Greek.
This is why the your version (less than 100 years old) has it because it's from the English, not the Aramaic to Greek!
Yes, technically the SBLGNT is less than 100 years old.
But it was produced by looking at many ancient Greek texts to try to get back to what the autograph said. There are several critical editions around, I like this one because it is free to download.
But do you believe that the majority of the ancient Greek texts differ substantially for the verse in question?
It looks to me like Matthew doesn't say that Jesus ascended immediately in chapter 28. I believe Matthew doesn't mention Jesus ascending in that chapter.All 3 versions show it's the same EVENT because afterwards Jesus Ascends.
It looks to me like Matthew doesn't say that Jesus ascended immediately in chapter 28. I believe Matthew doesn't mention Jesus ascending in that chapter.
Here they are in Galilee
Matthew 28: 16 But the eleven disciples went into Galilee, to the mountain where Jesus had sent them. 17 When they saw him, they bowed down to him, but some doubted.
In Luke they are in Jerusalem
Luke 24: 33 They rose up that very hour, returned to Jerusalem, and found the eleven gathered together, and those who were with them.
Many people say that the part of Mark 16 that you are quoting from later in your post was not part of the original book of Mark. Whether it was or not is not critical to me at this point. But it probably would be a good idea to agree on a definitive text, so that we are both looking at the same thing!
I agree that both Matthew and Mark mention Galilee. But is there something in Matthew that says that the discourse in chapter 28 takes place just before Jesus ascends?Both Mark and Matthew claim Galilee but Mark shows no mention of Father-Son-Holy Spirit, but afterwards Jesus Ascends.
Luke shows Baptize in Jesus Name and then He Ascends.
So all 3 are the SAME EVENT!