I believe the thread title question is moot. Why? Well, because you cannot simply use Revelation 14:9 to answer the question. All relevant scripture must be considered.
I believe "the mark alone" is highly improbable at best.
If you are going to play games with the word 'and' - does that mean that - in Revelation 13:16 - those who were killed (verse 15) also received the mark?
My friend (
@KJV1611) - you are not properly understanding the 'grammar of the language' - which does not allow for "the mark alone"...