Requirements of Salvation
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Indeed. Peter said to them, “Repent and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit” (Acts 2:38). This is why he commanded those in Acts 10, from which you just quoted, to be baptized (v. 48).
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John is writing to the circumcised in his epistles. It is understood that they are already keeping the Law. The Law required them to be baptised since their Messiah has already arrived.
So its superflous to add "you must also be water baptized", to the condition of believing in Jesus all the time, even in John 3:16.
Just like Peter saying "Oh you must also remember to keep the Law" is superflous in Acts 2:38, since he was only addressing the Men of Israel.
So its superflous to add "you must also be water baptized", to the condition of believing in Jesus all the time, even in John 3:16.
Just like Peter saying "Oh you must also remember to keep the Law" is superflous in Acts 2:38, since he was only addressing the Men of Israel.
EternalFire
If the answer you are looking for is forgiveness of sins, see my response below.
Luke 24:44-48 ESV
Then he said to them, “These are my words that I spoke to you while I was still with you, that everything written about me in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms must be fulfilled.” Then he opened their minds to understand the Scriptures, and said to them, ”Thus it is written, that the Christ should suffer and on the third day rise from the dead, and that repentance for the forgiveness of sins should be proclaimed in his name to all nations, beginning from Jerusalem. You are the witnesses of these things.
Notice that Jesus tells them that repentance for the forgiveness of sins should be proclaimed, not baptism for the forgiveness of sins.
So, in verses like Acts 2:38, did Peter decide to add baptism in water to what Jesus had commanded him to proclaim. The fact that verses like Acts 3:19 and Acts 10:43 repeat essentially the same concept, but leave out baptism lead me to think he did not intend to add anything to what Jesus told him.
in my post #73 I made the case that the baptism in Acts 2:38 is simply immersion into forgiveness of sins, meaning into the new covenant. The Greek words eis aphesin hamartion are the same in both Luke 24:47 and Acts 2:38. If you read this as into forgiveness of sins then Acts 2:38 looks something like this.
Acts 2:38
And Peter said to them, “Repent (change your mind) and be immersed every one of you on the authority of Jesus Christ into the forgiveness of your sins, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.
So, forgiveness of sins was entered upon repentance, and Luke 24:47, Acts 2:38, Acts 3:19, and Acts 10:43 all say the same thing.
If the answer you are looking for is forgiveness of sins, see my response below.
Luke 24:44-48 ESV
Then he said to them, “These are my words that I spoke to you while I was still with you, that everything written about me in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms must be fulfilled.” Then he opened their minds to understand the Scriptures, and said to them, ”Thus it is written, that the Christ should suffer and on the third day rise from the dead, and that repentance for the forgiveness of sins should be proclaimed in his name to all nations, beginning from Jerusalem. You are the witnesses of these things.
Notice that Jesus tells them that repentance for the forgiveness of sins should be proclaimed, not baptism for the forgiveness of sins.
So, in verses like Acts 2:38, did Peter decide to add baptism in water to what Jesus had commanded him to proclaim. The fact that verses like Acts 3:19 and Acts 10:43 repeat essentially the same concept, but leave out baptism lead me to think he did not intend to add anything to what Jesus told him.
in my post #73 I made the case that the baptism in Acts 2:38 is simply immersion into forgiveness of sins, meaning into the new covenant. The Greek words eis aphesin hamartion are the same in both Luke 24:47 and Acts 2:38. If you read this as into forgiveness of sins then Acts 2:38 looks something like this.
Acts 2:38
And Peter said to them, “Repent (change your mind) and be immersed every one of you on the authority of Jesus Christ into the forgiveness of your sins, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.
So, forgiveness of sins was entered upon repentance, and Luke 24:47, Acts 2:38, Acts 3:19, and Acts 10:43 all say the same thing.
John had no recorded ministry to the Gentiles.
Galatians 2:9 states clearly 9 And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen, and they unto the circumcision.
Galatians 2:9 states clearly 9 And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen, and they unto the circumcision.
Really?
For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. (Joh 3:16)
And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world. (1Jn 2:2)
But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name. (Joh 20:31)... no specific audience is mentioned.
He came unto his own, and his own received him not. But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name: (Joh 1:11-12)
I believe the writings of John transcends Jew/Gentile etc. and takes to the heart of the Eternal Son.
For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. (Joh 3:16)
And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world. (1Jn 2:2)
But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name. (Joh 20:31)... no specific audience is mentioned.
He came unto his own, and his own received him not. But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name: (Joh 1:11-12)
I believe the writings of John transcends Jew/Gentile etc. and takes to the heart of the Eternal Son.
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John 20:30-31 made it clear his intended audience in the gospel of John.
30 And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book:
31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.
That is the content of the gospel of the kingdom. For us now, our gospel is based on 1 Cor 15:1-4. We are definitely not called to believe because of signs, since Paul instructs us to walk by faith and not by sight.
Of course, it does not mean we cannot learn from the gospel of John, just like we can still learn from all the OT. But John was not writing to us in the Body of Christ. That should be made clear.
I understand this would be difficult for most of us to accept since we basically grew up in our Christian life with fond memories of John 3:16. For many of us, its probably the very first verse we ever memorized.
30 And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book:
31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.
That is the content of the gospel of the kingdom. For us now, our gospel is based on 1 Cor 15:1-4. We are definitely not called to believe because of signs, since Paul instructs us to walk by faith and not by sight.
Of course, it does not mean we cannot learn from the gospel of John, just like we can still learn from all the OT. But John was not writing to us in the Body of Christ. That should be made clear.
I understand this would be difficult for most of us to accept since we basically grew up in our Christian life with fond memories of John 3:16. For many of us, its probably the very first verse we ever memorized.
I didn't have any Christian upbringing or Church so your last sentence does not apply. John of all the Gospel writers has been the most influential in my growth as a Christian.
I was challenging this statement of yours... and showed by Scripture that that statement was not true. He may not have been sent specifically to the Gentiles but the Great Commission was to both Jerusalem and the uttermost parts of the world.
Would you mind clarifying your statement concerning John? John 20:30-31 is neither here nor there about John's intended audience.
Or are you saying the Jews get signs while Gentiles don't? Explain Rahab.
I was challenging this statement of yours... and showed by Scripture that that statement was not true. He may not have been sent specifically to the Gentiles but the Great Commission was to both Jerusalem and the uttermost parts of the world.
Would you mind clarifying your statement concerning John? John 20:30-31 is neither here nor there about John's intended audience.
Or are you saying the Jews get signs while Gentiles don't? Explain Rahab.
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I have already quoted Galatians 2:9 for the ministry of John.
Signs and wonders were always linked to the gospel of the kingdom. The Jews needed signs whenever anyone claims that he is sent by God with a message for them. It began in exodus 4. John was not expecting his fellow Jews to believe that Jesus was the Son of God, by faith. He wrote his gospel as a collection of various signs to prove to them he was indeed their promised Son of God.
For us, Paul was raised as our apostle, as we have discussed about this topic numerous times in the past.
Signs and wonders were always linked to the gospel of the kingdom. The Jews needed signs whenever anyone claims that he is sent by God with a message for them. It began in exodus 4. John was not expecting his fellow Jews to believe that Jesus was the Son of God, by faith. He wrote his gospel as a collection of various signs to prove to them he was indeed their promised Son of God.
For us, Paul was raised as our apostle, as we have discussed about this topic numerous times in the past.
Galatians 2:9 KJV
[9] And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen, and they unto the circumcision.
Why didn’t Paul explain a difference between ‘the Gospel of the Kingdom and the Gospel of Grace? Right then would have been a perfect time seeing James, Cephas and John were ‘pillars’? Instead, Paul was given the right hand of fellowship. Would you give the‘right hand of fellowship’ to one preaching another Gospel? Or are you saying Jews are saved differently than Gentiles?
Anyways, I guess you are saying I’m Jewish because God used signs and visions to convert me. Was it the Kingdom then that I was converted into? This is crazy.
[9] And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen, and they unto the circumcision.
Why didn’t Paul explain a difference between ‘the Gospel of the Kingdom and the Gospel of Grace? Right then would have been a perfect time seeing James, Cephas and John were ‘pillars’? Instead, Paul was given the right hand of fellowship. Would you give the‘right hand of fellowship’ to one preaching another Gospel? Or are you saying Jews are saved differently than Gentiles?
Anyways, I guess you are saying I’m Jewish because God used signs and visions to convert me. Was it the Kingdom then that I was converted into? This is crazy.
These Gentiles in Acts 10:43-47 had already believed, received the gift of the Holy Spirit and spoke in tongues (spiritual gift which is only for the body of Christ - 1 Corinthians 12) BEFORE they were baptized in verse 48.
In Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis.
*Compare the fact that these Gentiles in Acts 10:45 received the gift of the Holy Spirit (compare with Acts 2:38 - the gift of the Holy Spirit) and this was BEFORE water baptism (Acts 10:47).
In Acts 10:43 we read ..whoever believes in Him receives remission of sins. Again, these Gentiles received the gift of the Holy Spirit - Acts 10:45 - when they believed on the Lord Jesus Christ - Acts 11:17 - (compare with Acts 16:31 - Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved) BEFORE water baptism - Acts 10:47. This is referred to as repentance unto life - Acts 11:18.
*So the only logical conclusion when properly harmonizing Scripture with Scripture is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31; 26:18). *Perfect Harmony*
In Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis.
*Compare the fact that these Gentiles in Acts 10:45 received the gift of the Holy Spirit (compare with Acts 2:38 - the gift of the Holy Spirit) and this was BEFORE water baptism (Acts 10:47).
In Acts 10:43 we read ..whoever believes in Him receives remission of sins. Again, these Gentiles received the gift of the Holy Spirit - Acts 10:45 - when they believed on the Lord Jesus Christ - Acts 11:17 - (compare with Acts 16:31 - Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved) BEFORE water baptism - Acts 10:47. This is referred to as repentance unto life - Acts 11:18.
*So the only logical conclusion when properly harmonizing Scripture with Scripture is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31; 26:18). *Perfect Harmony*
Finding many seemingly contradictions in the Bible, my faith gets tested almost daily. I've come to accept the fact that understanding the Bible is a lifetime study and it's way to late for me to attempt understand. I simply have reserved the reality that I'll accept Jesus's words as I can understand them. After all even his disciples had problems understanding him often and they had a flesh and blood actual relationship with him. So I'll just leave this thread with this observation. If I don't make the Lord Jesus's cut, it will be my fault only. And with that thought in mind I'll say redemption and saving grace for the thief on the cross seemed to be without conditions and or reservations. "I say unto you today, you will be with me in heaven." (Jesus the Christ)
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In Acts 2:38 baptism/immersion is just a word used to describe our entrance into forgiveness of sins upon repentance. It is similar to the baptism of the Israelites into Moses in 1 Corinthians 10:2. The Israelites were baptized eis/into Moses. They were immersed into the Law of Moses. Jesus described the entrance into forgiveness of sins in Luke 24:47 without using the word ”baptized.”
If our entrance into forgiveness of sins occurs upon repentance(metanoia=a change of mind) then what sins are left to wash away at the point of our baptism in water. Even if your are having trouble with the way I see Acts 2:38, Luke 24:47 clearly says that repentance is for/into forgiveness of sins. Baptism in water is a confession of faith, a way for a person to show others that they believe in Jesus.
The greek word for repentance means a change of mind. So, when someone changes their mind from unbelieving to believing repentance is achieved.
If our entrance into forgiveness of sins occurs upon repentance(metanoia=a change of mind) then what sins are left to wash away at the point of our baptism in water. Even if your are having trouble with the way I see Acts 2:38, Luke 24:47 clearly says that repentance is for/into forgiveness of sins. Baptism in water is a confession of faith, a way for a person to show others that they believe in Jesus.
The greek word for repentance means a change of mind. So, when someone changes their mind from unbelieving to believing repentance is achieved.
That verse only said that John and some others would be going to the circumcised to share the Gospel. It never forbid John from ministering to the Gentiles. Although they were assigned to go to one group or the other, their message was the same as Paul's. It is the same message and when believed, it constitutes the Church, where IN CHRIST there is neither Jew nor Gentile.
Let me ask this again...
" Would you give the ‘right hand of fellowship’ to one preaching another Gospel? Or are you saying Jews are saved differently than Gentiles? "
Let me ask this again...
" Would you give the ‘right hand of fellowship’ to one preaching another Gospel? Or are you saying Jews are saved differently than Gentiles? "