Women will be saved through Childbearing, if

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Whispered

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Paul has given a reason as to why 'he doesn't permit women to teach men' when he goes back to creation. If this is Paul's opinion, then creation is also Paul's own opinion. Think about it.
Yes, Paul speaks of his reason in the same chapter where he says women should remain quiet.
Back to creation is not it. If you think that is Paul's meaning the onus is on you to prove it with scripture.
 

Whispered

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It is about the hierarchy that God established during creation. It is through this hierarchy that sin came to the world, and through the same hierarchy that sin is defeated.

This hierarchy is simple: God - Christ (Bridegroom) - Church (bride)
Christ, being subordinate to God, obeyed God and became one with God, in the same manner, the Church being subordinate to Christ, becomes one with Christ when they obey Him and thus all become one with God. This is the mystery of salvation that is demonstrated through our worldly marriages.

God puts accountability and responsibilities on the one with higher authority in the hierarchy.
Eve sinned but sin was not put on her account but when Adam sinned, he took the responsibility.
The church also sinned but that responsibility was transferred to Christ who pays the price for all those who remain one in marriage with Him by obeying Him.

So, when Paul is talking about child birth, he is simply bringing the issue of hierarchy and simply saying IMO, that women must stay obedient to their husbands.
What denomination are you a member of that taught you this?
Christ was God. He did not need to become one with when He was God.
 

Whispered

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You're misrepresenting the true words in the KJV Bible. A bishop is not a deacon.
A Bishop is a presiding official or overseer. The word is equivalent in use to Elder. Bishops were teachers and preachers as well as overseers and were charged with guarding the church against doctrinal error. Deacons were subordinate to Bishops and handled the more mundane tasks of church administration. The Greek word for Deacon means “one who serves.” [source]

1 Timothy 3 King James Version
1This is a true saying, if a man desire the office of a bishop, he desireth a good work.2 A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;
Tinkerbell you may disagree as you wish, however the scripture proves you are disagreeing with what actually appears in the KJV Bible, and that you have misrepresented all this time in your argument that Deacons must be married men per the KJV.
 

Noose

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Yes, Paul speaks of his reason in the same chapter where he says women should remain quiet.
Back to creation is not it. If you think that is Paul's meaning the onus is on you to prove it with scripture.
1 Tim 2:11A womana must learn in quietness and full submissiveness. 12I do not permit a woman to teach or exercise authority over a man;b she is to remain quiet. 13For Adam was formed first, and then Eve. 14And it was not Adam who was deceived, but the woman who was deceived and fell into transgression.
 

Whispered

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1 Tim 2:11A womana must learn in quietness and full submissiveness. 12I do not permit a woman to teach or exercise authority over a man;b she is to remain quiet. 13For Adam was formed first, and then Eve. 14And it was not Adam who was deceived, but the woman who was deceived and fell into transgression.
You're referring to one of the pastoral epistles there. (those are 1st Timothy, 2nd Timothy and Titus).
Scholars have wondered at the authorship of 1st timothy for some time now. Is it really the Saint Apostle Paul that wrote them? The reason being if the churches under direction of the pastoral epistles were being led by Paul in said letters, why would Paul then contradict , for instance, the verse you've shared when in other epistles he praised women who were not silent in the churches? But rather were Shepherds, Deacons, and Prophetesses, which would mean they were not silent.

Furthermore, as pertains to Adam and Eve, as this has been discussed at length here, Adam was told directly by God not to eat of the forbidden tree. Adam was with Eve when the serpent tempted her and it was by Adam that sin entered the world. Therefore, it would not make any sense to claim a woman should remain silent in the church when it was the man Adam that disobeyed God after being told directly what he was to obey, and it was by that disobedience that we're told sin entered the world. The woman was not managed by the man , as was his duty according to those scriptures you cite, when Adam having direct knowledge from God that they were not to eat of that tree, did not stop Eve from doing so when her innocence was tempted by the serpent. And in fact, did eat of it when offered to by Eve.
Therefore, the excuse that man was not deceived can be true when we realize he couldn't truly be deceived but he could absolutely and did willfully disobey God. Whereas the woman was deceived because she would have through secondhand knowledge have been aware of the command not to eat due to Adam telling her of this. But since she did not yet possess the conscious awareness of what it means to be good or evil, obedient or disobedient, her temptation was , as the serpent well knew, a matter of naivety being seduced by a wiser one; the serpent. Whereas Adam, who had direct knowledge through God speaking to him and His commandment not to eat of that tree, had no excuse for disobeying God's directive and eating what Eve innocently offered him. Not knowing the full consequence.
And further, when Eve, who ate first , did not die, it could be that Adam then ate because he didn't understand the meaning of death as God forewarned should he transgress the command and eat of the tree of knowledge.

In any event, Paul praised women who were in service to the Gospel in his many epistles. Therefore it is to be a curiosity as to why it would at least appear Paul is contradicting himself in the pastoral epistle of 1st Timothy chapter 3.
And this can also be at issue because as a Pharisee first, Paul would have known the Genesis story of Adam and Eve very well. Therefore, he would have known the greater part that Adam played over that innocent transgression of innocent naive Eve. Making that epistle not to make sense given his knowledge. (And the aforementioned praises Paul gave to women in ministry in those churches he founded).
 
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Doctrines of God are spiritual matters .God is Spirit. The bible is a spiritual book written by the finger of His Spirit. We compare the spiritual to the spiritual unseen understanding. Or called faith to faith as it is written.
There is a lot of confusion in this statement. Lets go BACK to the beginning: Genesis 1:26 "God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness". US means Father, Son & Holy Spirit. "But the Advocate, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, will teach you all things and will remind you of everything I have said to you." (John 14:26) Perhaps what you are refering to is 2Peter1:21: "For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost."
 
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This hierarchy is simple: God - Christ (Bridegroom) - Church (bride)
We can see this in the Alphabet, so we should have learned this in Kindergarten. A represents God the Father. B represents a tent or dwelling. When the First five books of the Bible were written people were living in a Tent. C represents the camel with all of their fancy cargo that was always for sale at the right price. D represents the door to the tent. The Son is in control of that door: "I Am the Door" (John 10:9) We are the Bride and we are a joint heir. "heirs of God and co-heirs with Christ— if indeed we suffer with Him, so that we may also be glorified with Him." (Romans8:17) E represents "Behold" or giving Praise, Honor and Glory to God. Your head held high with your hands in the air. I admit that it is difficult to control what my wife buys and brings into the House. 1 Peter 3:6 "Sarah obeyed Abraham, calling him lord". So we the Bride are to live in obedience to Christ.
 

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Noose

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What denomination are you a member of that taught you this?
Christ was God. He did not need to become one with when He was God.
This arrangement was not about Christ being God but salvation to mankind. Christ submitted and cried to the one who could save Him and He was heard. (Heb 5)
 

Noose

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You're referring to one of the pastoral epistles there. (those are 1st Timothy, 2nd Timothy and Titus).
Scholars have wondered at the authorship of 1st timothy for some time now. Is it really the Saint Apostle Paul that wrote them? The reason being if the churches under direction of the pastoral epistles were being led by Paul in said letters, why would Paul then contradict , for instance, the verse you've shared when in other epistles he praised women who were not silent in the churches? But rather were Shepherds, Deacons, and Prophetesses, which would mean they were not silent.

Furthermore, as pertains to Adam and Eve, as this has been discussed at length here, Adam was told directly by God not to eat of the forbidden tree. Adam was with Eve when the serpent tempted her and it was by Adam that sin entered the world. Therefore, it would not make any sense to claim a woman should remain silent in the church when it was the man Adam that disobeyed God after being told directly what he was to obey, and it was by that disobedience that we're told sin entered the world. The woman was not managed by the man , as was his duty according to those scriptures you cite, when Adam having direct knowledge from God that they were not to eat of that tree, did not stop Eve from doing so when her innocence was tempted by the serpent. And in fact, did eat of it when offered to by Eve.
Therefore, the excuse that man was not deceived can be true when we realize he couldn't truly be deceived but he could absolutely and did willfully disobey God. Whereas the woman was deceived because she would have through secondhand knowledge have been aware of the command not to eat due to Adam telling her of this. But since she did not yet possess the conscious awareness of what it means to be good or evil, obedient or disobedient, her temptation was , as the serpent well knew, a matter of naivety being seduced by a wiser one; the serpent. Whereas Adam, who had direct knowledge through God speaking to him and His commandment not to eat of that tree, had no excuse for disobeying God's directive and eating what Eve innocently offered him. Not knowing the full consequence.
And further, when Eve, who ate first , did not die, it could be that Adam then ate because he didn't understand the meaning of death as God forewarned should he transgress the command and eat of the tree of knowledge.

In any event, Paul praised women who were in service to the Gospel in his many epistles. Therefore it is to be a curiosity as to why it would at least appear Paul is contradicting himself in the pastoral epistle of 1st Timothy chapter 3.
And this can also be at issue because as a Pharisee first, Paul would have known the Genesis story of Adam and Eve very well. Therefore, he would have known the greater part that Adam played over that innocent transgression of innocent naive Eve. Making that epistle not to make sense given his knowledge. (And the aforementioned praises Paul gave to women in ministry in those churches he founded).
You have the wrong idea; Paul is not castigating women for their role in sin, so you can not say Paul contradicted or not. Paul states it as it is, not once but severally including:

Eph 5:22Wives, submit to your husbands as to the Lord. 23For the husband is the head of the wife as Christ is the head of the church, His body, of which He is the Savior.

It is not about what Eve knew or not but about the hierarchy that God set in His own wisdom.
 

Whispered

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This arrangement was not about Christ being God but salvation to mankind. Christ submitted and cried to the one who could save Him and He was heard. (Heb 5)
If that is so then you contradict yourself in your initial posting.
When you circumvent the fact that Jesus was God you lose any argument as pertains to the cross.
 

Whispered

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He is the Word of God. "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." (John1:1)
You do not know the actual scripture in the Book of John chapter 1 and verse 1: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

Jesus was God, Jesus was not the word of God.
 

Whispered

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You have the wrong idea; Paul is not castigating women for their role in sin, so you can not say Paul contradicted or not. Paul states it as it is, not once but severally including:

Eph 5:22Wives, submit to your husbands as to the Lord. 23For the husband is the head of the wife as Christ is the head of the church, His body, of which He is the Savior.

It is not about what Eve knew or not but about the hierarchy that God set in His own wisdom.
Then , per your argument, God's wisdom was skewed when He tells us He is no respecter of persons and shows no partiality. The Book of Deuteronomy chapter 10 .
 
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Jesus was not the word of God.
A statement like this is usually a violation of the terms of service of these web sites.

"Jesus Christ not only gives God's Word to us humans; he is the Word. The Logos is God, begotten and therefore distinguishable from the Father, but, being God, of the same substance (essence). This was decreed at the First Council of Constantinople". (Wiki)
 

Noose

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Then , per your argument, God's wisdom was skewed when He tells us He is no respecter of persons and shows no partiality. The Book of Deuteronomy chapter 10 .
God not being a respecter of persons means men have to tow the line and live in inherent obedience to what God made in the beginning.
Man vs woman is what God created in His wisdom, man sleeping with another man is an inherent disobedience to what God made and it is and will remain an abomination to God because it goes against what God made in the beginning. It will not change.
Same, thing; going against the hierarchy that God established in the beginning is what Paul is arguing about including here:

1 Cor 11:7A man ought not to cover his head, since he is the image and glory of God; but the woman is the glory of man. 8For man did not come from woman, but woman from man. 9Neither was man created for woman, but woman for man. 10For this reason a woman ought to have a sign of authority ona her head, because of the angels.

This is the third time Paul is using creation as his basis for the argument, so i don't think it is just one of his own opinions. It starts from creation.
 

Noose

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If that is so then you contradict yourself in your initial posting.
When you circumvent the fact that Jesus was God you lose any argument as pertains to the cross.
I don't get you:

1 Cor 8:6yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we exist. And there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we exist.

Heb 5:7During the days of Jesus’ earthly life, He offered up prayers and petitions with loud cries and tears to the One who could save Him from death, and He was heard because of His reverence.
 

Whispered

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A statement like this is usually a violation of the terms of service of these web sites.
Only if the Admin. of such websites is Biblically illiterate. Which you will not find at this site.

"Jesus Christ
not only gives God's Word to us humans; he is the Word. The Logos is God, begotten and therefore distinguishable from the Father, but, being God, of the same substance (essence). This was decreed at the First Council of Constantinople". (Wiki)
In the beginning
was The Word
And The Word
Was With God
And The Word WAS GOD.
The Word became flesh. (That was Jesus)

John 1:2 He was with God in the beginning. 3 Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made. 4 In him was life, and that life was the light of all mankind. 5 The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome[a] it.
 

Whispered

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I don't get you:

1 Cor 8:6yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we exist. And there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we exist.

Heb 5:7During the days of Jesus’ earthly life, He offered up prayers and petitions with loud cries and tears to the One who could save Him from death, and He was heard because of His reverence.
What don't you get? That Jesus was God incarnate? That's scripture.
That Jesus prayed to God? That's evidence He was a flesh and bone man ministering among fellow Jews for whom prayer was a form of worship. If Jesus didn't pray, as was expected of Him, His fellow Jews would have thought something was off given during His ministry He clearly proved He served with the power of the Father within Him.
 

Whispered

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Why would we question that? "1Paul came to Derbe and then to Lystra, where he found a disciple named Timothy, the son of a believing Jewish woman and a Greek father. 2The brothers in Lystra and Iconium spoke well of him. (Acts16:1) We are told the Timothy was the first Christian bishop of Ephesus.
Why would we question that?
As I said, it is a matter of question and has been for years for Bible scholars.

What we can question is, since the passage does not say, I Paul do not let a woman....., it is then an inference that the pastoral epistles are of Paul.
However, when we read that when says, I do not permit a woman to teach or have authority over a man, and yet we read other of epistles credited to Paul wherein he praises the work of women who did not remain silent in church and did have authority over men, there then becomes a question as to the conundrum of two different epistles and one edict for women; remain silent in church, not have authority over men, versus not remaining silent in the churches, having authority over men, and being praised for being so.

When Paul followed God's direction in all things, and we know God is not a respecter of persons, and shows no partiality, how would one argue then that God directing Paul in his ministry would tell Paul to show partiality toward men and tell women to remain quiet and not let them serve the Gospel?
And most assuredly, Paul would then have to contradict himself in his other epistle wherein he decreed there is no male nor female, (no Greek, no Jew,etc...) , because we are all one in Christ Jesus.
Segregating the office of ministry of the word due to gender violates that decree also. (see the Book of Galatians chapter 3 and verse 28)