if part of the judgement of Woman was proclaiming that her desire be for her husband and that he rule over her, was part of her sin that she instead desired to rule over him?
years ago my wife and i were embroiled in an argument, and she contested that the Bible instructed me to submit to her as my wife. she had turned Ephesians 5 upside down - or, maybe, sideways lol - in her memory of it, she thought it instructed not only wives to submit to their husbands, but also husbands to likewise submit to their wives. i pointed that out, and she was incredulous until we read it together, and then her demeanor changed - she is a wonderful woman, and doesn't despise correction; i'm relating this to her praise, not her shame. in fact, after reading that, we forgot all about our arguing and spent a few hours searching the scripture and marveling about it together.
but my purpose in mentioning this is to point out that, not being familiar enough with the scripture, her instinct combined with an incomplete memory of it initially combined in her desiring to rule over me. where did this desire come from? it wasn't even about whatever decision it was we were arguing about making; it was about in whose hands the decision ultimately rested.