If a Person Accepts Jesus is the Savior,
- Thread starter JadenS
- Start date
-
Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.
If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!
To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
If a person believes in Jesus they have come to that decision of faith based on knowledge of Jesus' teachings and understanding of their import in that persons personal life. So yes, a person is saved when they believe in Jesus.
Do they have to accept Jesus Doctrine? In that there are so many Denominations that prescribe their particular Doctrine interspersed with the simple message of our Lord's teaching concerning saving grace, I'd answer, no.
If a person read just the Synoptic Gospels and found themselves drawn to realizing their sins and then sought to repent of them and accept Christ, and even Baptize themselves in a committment ceremony to our Lord, who can say God would not know them by their sincere heart?
Too often people think if they are a member of a Denomination they are saved above all others who are members of a different one.
Jesus was not a Christian. Jesus was not a member of any Denomination. Jesus was the Savior of the world! A profound fact, a simple truth, an eternal relationship made by a sincere calling of the fallen one's lost soul seeking reunion with its source; God, the Father of all.
Jesus believes in us!
Hallelujah!
Do they have to accept Jesus Doctrine? In that there are so many Denominations that prescribe their particular Doctrine interspersed with the simple message of our Lord's teaching concerning saving grace, I'd answer, no.
If a person read just the Synoptic Gospels and found themselves drawn to realizing their sins and then sought to repent of them and accept Christ, and even Baptize themselves in a committment ceremony to our Lord, who can say God would not know them by their sincere heart?
Too often people think if they are a member of a Denomination they are saved above all others who are members of a different one.
Jesus was not a Christian. Jesus was not a member of any Denomination. Jesus was the Savior of the world! A profound fact, a simple truth, an eternal relationship made by a sincere calling of the fallen one's lost soul seeking reunion with its source; God, the Father of all.
Jesus believes in us!
Hallelujah!-
1
- Show all
It seem's like a trick question to me. Did the man crucified with Jesus and saw paradise that day know much about the Lords teachings? He started ridiculing the Lord but had a change of heart and humbled himself. It would be far better to me a strict follower but that's not exactly what the scripture says; "If you confess with your mouth, “Jesus is Lord,” and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved. For it is with your heart that you believe and are justified, and it is with your mouth that you confess and are saved." (Romans 10:9-10) This verse is the bottom line where salvation is concerned.
-
1
-
1
-
1
- Show all
That would cover at least half of those who call themselves Christians.
Perhaps one of the things you might be referring to would be like the scriptures below.
Mar 11:22 And Jesus answering saith unto them, Have faith in God.
Mar 11:23 For verily I say unto you, That whosoever shall say unto this mountain, Be thou removed, and be thou cast into the sea; and shall not doubt in his heart, but shall believe that those things which he saith shall come to pass; he shall have whatsoever he saith.
Mar 11:24 Therefore I say unto you, What things soever ye desire, when ye pray, believe that ye receive them, and ye shall have them.
Not many people believe the above scripture.
Because it basically says, you can have what you want.
Many add, "if it be the will of God", to the above verses because they don't believe what is written, as it is written.
Is that something of what you are talking about?
Perhaps one of the things you might be referring to would be like the scriptures below.
Mar 11:22 And Jesus answering saith unto them, Have faith in God.
Mar 11:23 For verily I say unto you, That whosoever shall say unto this mountain, Be thou removed, and be thou cast into the sea; and shall not doubt in his heart, but shall believe that those things which he saith shall come to pass; he shall have whatsoever he saith.
Mar 11:24 Therefore I say unto you, What things soever ye desire, when ye pray, believe that ye receive them, and ye shall have them.
Not many people believe the above scripture.
Because it basically says, you can have what you want.
Many add, "if it be the will of God", to the above verses because they don't believe what is written, as it is written.
Is that something of what you are talking about?
Indeed it is, and just as true as what is written in Mk 11:23-24.
But what you might not be seeing is, God already said what His will is in those two verses.
And not only that, but He also said, "This is a true statement..."
Which means, it's true as is. It doesn't need help from other verses from the bible to make it the whole truth or council of God.
On the contrary, it perverts and twists what is written into a lie.
If it is the truth as it is written, like Jesus said it is, how are you making it more true by adding "the will of God" to it?
If I gave you a paper saying, 'This is a true statement, in an of itself. You can have whatever you want in this store if you do such and such, I will buy it, and it will be yours.'
So you, in your excitement, go to get one item and bring it back to me saying, 'I did what you said, and I chose this.'
But then I say, 'I'm sorry, it is not my will for you to have that.'
What would you say?
'You lied to and deceived me. What you said was false, You said such and such, and nothing about me having to choose what you wanted or what your will was for me to have or not to have.'
What if I were to draw up a contract and you agreeing to the terms, sign it, and I later tried to add something to said terms without it being written in the contract?
Most people would take the other party to court for breach of contract, right?
I understand about adding other verses to support a doctrine or scripture verse for clarity, but when Jesus says, "This is a truthful saying..., or verily verily I say unto you...," to add anything to said verses, is NOT adding for clarity sake or for support, but changing the very meaning and context of those verses, thereby making, what was the truth, into a lie.
It changes what is being said.
To give you a better perspective of what I'm saying, let's do the same for some other verses in scripture.
Rom 10:9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved. [if it is the will of God]
Joh 3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. [if it is the will of God]
Did that portion of verse in John 5:14 do anything to the meaning or change the context of the statements in any way?
It most certainly did, and that is exactly what you and others are doing to the other promises of God, such like the kind written in mk .
After the "will of God" was added, it change a solid promise and guarantee into hoping, wishing, and wondering if it is God's will for them to save them if the believe in Jesus.
By adding those few word, I just made the truth of God's PROMISES, into a lie, and both perverted and corrupted said truth.
Maybe to you, it is not as black and white, but to me, it is doing the same as what I did to the salvation scriptures.
His will is already written, we need to stop adding or using other scripture like the above to explain away our failure, or that of others, to receive from God.
It also takes away the faith one might have had in that promise, from being confidently assured, to, 'I wonder what God is going to do?'
There is absolutely NO FAITH in that, and how could you, when you don't know what God will do or what His will is?
But what you might not be seeing is, God already said what His will is in those two verses.
And not only that, but He also said, "This is a true statement..."
Which means, it's true as is. It doesn't need help from other verses from the bible to make it the whole truth or council of God.
On the contrary, it perverts and twists what is written into a lie.
If it is the truth as it is written, like Jesus said it is, how are you making it more true by adding "the will of God" to it?
If I gave you a paper saying, 'This is a true statement, in an of itself. You can have whatever you want in this store if you do such and such, I will buy it, and it will be yours.'
So you, in your excitement, go to get one item and bring it back to me saying, 'I did what you said, and I chose this.'
But then I say, 'I'm sorry, it is not my will for you to have that.'
What would you say?
'You lied to and deceived me. What you said was false, You said such and such, and nothing about me having to choose what you wanted or what your will was for me to have or not to have.'
What if I were to draw up a contract and you agreeing to the terms, sign it, and I later tried to add something to said terms without it being written in the contract?
Most people would take the other party to court for breach of contract, right?
I understand about adding other verses to support a doctrine or scripture verse for clarity, but when Jesus says, "This is a truthful saying..., or verily verily I say unto you...," to add anything to said verses, is NOT adding for clarity sake or for support, but changing the very meaning and context of those verses, thereby making, what was the truth, into a lie.
It changes what is being said.
To give you a better perspective of what I'm saying, let's do the same for some other verses in scripture.
Rom 10:9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved. [if it is the will of God]
Joh 3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. [if it is the will of God]
Did that portion of verse in John 5:14 do anything to the meaning or change the context of the statements in any way?
It most certainly did, and that is exactly what you and others are doing to the other promises of God, such like the kind written in mk .
After the "will of God" was added, it change a solid promise and guarantee into hoping, wishing, and wondering if it is God's will for them to save them if the believe in Jesus.
By adding those few word, I just made the truth of God's PROMISES, into a lie, and both perverted and corrupted said truth.
Maybe to you, it is not as black and white, but to me, it is doing the same as what I did to the salvation scriptures.
His will is already written, we need to stop adding or using other scripture like the above to explain away our failure, or that of others, to receive from God.
It also takes away the faith one might have had in that promise, from being confidently assured, to, 'I wonder what God is going to do?'
There is absolutely NO FAITH in that, and how could you, when you don't know what God will do or what His will is?
-
1
- Show all
1Jn 5:14 And this is the confidence that we have in him, that, if we ask any thing according to his will, he heareth us:
1Jn 5:15 And if we know that he hear us, whatsoever we ask, we know that we have the petitions that we desired of him.
I believe verse 14 alone is being use out of context when applying it to other verses in scripture.
Notice the certainty it the above promise vs. applying a portion of the above verse to other promises of God.
How does one know God heard them?
Do they base it on knowing what the will of God is?
What about if they don't know what His will is?
They won't be able to have any confidence He heard them.
Verse 15 says, "WE KNOW THAT WE HAVE..."
By adding 'the will of God' to other verses, no one KNOWS if God heard them because they don't know what His will was or is, and they don't know that, because they don't have a promise to stand on.
What if I were to cherry pick from verse 15 and apply it to other verses in the bible by saying, "we can have...whatsoever we desire, regardless of God's will"?
Will it make the truth?
No, because I took it out of context, and it certainly isn't what was being said.
Did you know, going through adversity while fighting the good fight of faith, before one receives the promise of God, is doing the will of God? That is according to His will.
Heb 10:35 Cast not away therefore your confidence, which hath great recompence of reward.
Heb 10:36 For ye have need of patience, that, after ye have done the will of God, ye might receive the promise.
1Pe 4:19 Wherefore let them that suffer according to the will of God commit the keeping of their souls to him in well doing, as unto a faithful Creator.
1Jn 5:15 And if we know that he hear us, whatsoever we ask, we know that we have the petitions that we desired of him.
I believe verse 14 alone is being use out of context when applying it to other verses in scripture.
Notice the certainty it the above promise vs. applying a portion of the above verse to other promises of God.
How does one know God heard them?
Do they base it on knowing what the will of God is?
What about if they don't know what His will is?
They won't be able to have any confidence He heard them.
Verse 15 says, "WE KNOW THAT WE HAVE..."
By adding 'the will of God' to other verses, no one KNOWS if God heard them because they don't know what His will was or is, and they don't know that, because they don't have a promise to stand on.
What if I were to cherry pick from verse 15 and apply it to other verses in the bible by saying, "we can have...whatsoever we desire, regardless of God's will"?
Will it make the truth?
No, because I took it out of context, and it certainly isn't what was being said.
Did you know, going through adversity while fighting the good fight of faith, before one receives the promise of God, is doing the will of God? That is according to His will.
Heb 10:35 Cast not away therefore your confidence, which hath great recompence of reward.
Heb 10:36 For ye have need of patience, that, after ye have done the will of God, ye might receive the promise.
1Pe 4:19 Wherefore let them that suffer according to the will of God commit the keeping of their souls to him in well doing, as unto a faithful Creator.
Hello @JadenS, et al, as an aside, I find the opening statement in v17 to be particularly interesting Here is the entire passage for reference sake.
What do you all think He meant (in the bold text above), and are the implications He makes for believers, the unregenerate, or both?
Thanks!
~Deut
p.s. - Jesus' hearers (the Jews/Jewish leadership) raised the question of His competence as a teacher. He, in turn, raises the question of their competence as hearers, does He not
Here is the entire passage for reference sake.John 7
14 When it was now in the midst of the feast, Jesus went up into the temple and began to teach.
15 The Jews then were astonished, saying, “How has this man become learned, having never been educated?”
16 Jesus answered them and said, “My teaching [doctrine] is not Mine, but His who sent Me.
17 If anyone is willing/desires to do His will, he will know whether the teaching is of God or whether I speak from Myself.
18 He who speaks from himself seeks his own glory; but He who is seeking the glory of the One who sent Him, He is true, and there is no unrighteousness in Him.
What do you all think He meant (in the bold text above), and are the implications He makes for believers, the unregenerate, or both?
Thanks!
~Deut
p.s. - Jesus' hearers (the Jews/Jewish leadership) raised the question of His competence as a teacher. He, in turn, raises the question of their competence as hearers, does He not