You’re right! Abraham and David were justified by grace through faith. Well, I don’t claim to have a perfect understanding of Scripture – I’m here to learn, not to teach.
I think the term “salvation by grace” is quite confusing, so let me put my statement another way: Salvation by the blood of Jesus was not available before the crucifixion.
It is evident in the Gospels that the physical Jesus never preached redemption by his blood. When the rich young ruler asked about eternal life, the Lord answer: “Keep the commandments”.
Throughout the four gospels we see the Lord Jesus expounding the Law of Moses and not once did he tell his disciples to stop keeping it.
So, my question is: Who told us to stop keeping the Law of Moses? I would like to hear your opinion about this.
Cool..well, firstly, the law does serve the purpose of condemning the sinner of his sinfulness. It exposes the heart of the person. In fact, my position, based on Romans 7-8, is that the law entices the unsaved person to sin.
The person is born with a corrupt, fallen nature that is in rebellion against God. The law shows the person what it means to be in obedience to God, at a certain level. Since he is a rebel at heart, he will sin simply by being exposed to the law. He doesn't want to be in submission to God, so the law exposes is fallen nature. In the case of the young ruler, he was an idolater who worshipped his riches more than he wanted a relationship with God.
Regarding who told us the Mosaic Law was no longer in effect, I would refer to these verses:
Acts 15
Eph 2:13-15
Rom 7:1-6
I Cor 3
Heb 7, 8, 10:1-4
Col 2:16-17
Gal 3, 4
There are other references but these are the ones that come to mind.
Paul and other Jewish Christians continued to observe calendar and dietary laws, as well as physical circumcision, but they were free to observe these shadows and types, without requiring them of other believers, if they wanted. See Acts 21.
Regarding Jesus, he didn't tell us that the Law was no longer in effect, explicitly, but he prophesied the elimination of the Temple in AD 70. The geneologies of the priesthood were destroyed in the fire as well, since they were stored in the Temple complex. Therefore, no one can claim to be a Levitical priest because the ancestry is not provable.
I believe that God intentionally destroyed the Temple, not only as a sign of judgment against Israel, but because, in reality, the whole Mosaic system became idolatrous when the Substance, Jesus, came on the scene. God was simply destroying all possibility of the Mosaic Law being used as a claim of righteousness. It is only to Jesus that the believer can go to, as a source of righteousness, and to claim that one is righteous through the Law is actually blasphemous.
It is somewhat amusing that Judaizers use Matt 5:17-19 to "prove" the need to keep the commandments, as they don't keep every "jot and tittle" of the Law because it can't be done without the Temple and Levitical priesthood.
I realize this doesn't answer your question regarding to Jesus' command to stop observing the Mosaic Law. I will tell you that I believe he may have broken the Levitical law himself, because he touched lepers. Instead of making him unclean, though, he made them clean. His "cleanness" also transfers to the believers who are united with Him in faith.
But, technically, I don't think touching lepers was allowable under the Mosaic Law, even if they are cleansed in the process. Hebrew Roots people have gotten very angry with me when I've discussed this, though.
I don't believe Jesus ever sinned, but at the same time I know he touched lepers and made them clean. It was sort of a roll-back of the curse. He was showing that he has come to reverse the curse.