The ones that became believers when they heard the tongue of God the gospel of their salvation?
No. They spoke in tongues
after becoming believers. There were no unbelievers present when they spoke in tongues.
Where did they go? Who said unbelievers had to be there ? If a tree falls in the forest with no one there to hear it does it make a noise?
You have implied that in your claim that tongues are always a sign to unbelievers. If there were no unbelievers present, why would God send a sign to them of their unbelief, or of anyone else's unbelief. Answer: He didn't. They spoke in tongues for another purpose... and because their tongues-speech had another purpose
as recorded in Scripture, you cannot
always apply the idea that tongues are a sign for unbelievers.
The law in respect to signs does not change?
Its valid in every case .
Except this one... and therefore not
every one. Therefore, you cannot
always apply the "law" (as you call it) in every case today.
Would you like that I would offer a couple that show prophecy the tongue of God is for those who believe prophecy .Signs of rebellion for those who believe not prophecy . The law is given in 1 Corinthian 14:20-22 .. . the foundation in Isaiah 28 .
For the umpteenth time, it isn't a "law". Scripture doesn't call it a law; only you do.
I asked you this previously and you didn't answer: Mary was given a sign; was she a rebel?
And from this we see that the use of different languages shows how God deals with those
who don’t believe, not with those who believe.
The message in Isaiah 28 was to Israel, not every person at all times.
prophecy shows how God works through those who believe, not through unbelievers.
No, prophecy does not "show how God works through believers." Prophecy is
God's message... period. Prophecy
is a sign to believers, but that is not the
only thing that it is. It wasn't a sign to believers in the cases of Pharaoh, Nebuchadnezzar, or Cyrus. Similarly, tongues-speech
is a sign to unbelievers, but that is not the
only thing that it is. In the case of Cornelius, it was a sign to Peter and the other apostles, who were believers!
You are conflating "speaking in tongues" (which Cornelius and his companions did
after they were saved) with "the gospel" (which Peter preached to them
before they were saved). That is incorrect. Scripture doesn't call "the gospel" a "tongue".