Acts 15:11...
Interesting, why do you think the grace dispensation began at the particular point? Wasn't Paul already preaching to the Gentiles before the Jerusalem Council?
Acts 15:11...
lol, no when, where and how how has nothing to do with when Paul began to realize it and then to believe in it and then speak of it. Paul was saved at the very same place, the very same way and at the very same time as the rest of us. It had absolutely nothing to do with anything he did he was just as dead to sin until the cross as you and me,our Lord gets all the credit and is why he is the only one called Savior.
Several people have told me on this very message board that God still has a plan for the Jews?
So are you postulating that God made a promise to a whole nation that has yet to be fulfilled....
is this the land promise?
Also the "in sin" portion is counterfeit fabricated fulfillment and is not connected to biblical prophecy.
Interesting, why do you think the grace dispensation began at the particular point? Wasn't Paul already preaching to the Gentiles before the Jerusalem Council?
Whats really interesting is that Acts 15:11 says that through the (Grace) of the Lord Jesus Christ they were both(Jews and gentiles) saved https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Acts+15:11&version=KJV and you insist that grace began in another place and at a different time instead of at the Cross. But then in your camp you need it to be somewhere other than them both being saved the same right?
1 Tim 1:16
Howbeit for this cause I obtained mercy, that in me first Jesus Christ might shew forth all longsuffering, for a pattern to them which should hereafter believe on him to life everlasting.
Paul was saved by Jesus, even though he committed the blasphemy of the Holy Spirit by approving the stoning of Stephen. Under the law dispensation, that was an unforgivable sin.
But under the grace dispensation, there is no more unforgivable sin. Paul was saved as a pattern for the rest of the church.
That was Peter's show of support for the gospel of grace that Paul had already been preaching among the Gentiles. If you want to choose precisely that point for the grace dispensation to begin, you are free to do that of course.
You are aware that James disagree with Peter that the Jews are also under the same gospel right? That council event was only to discuss whether gentiles who are in the church have to follow the Law. As Acts 21 show, the elders and him still regard it as necessary for Jews to be following the Law.
lol, the whole world was concluded as dead to sin not just Paul and Jesus loved us all while we were yet sinners. Saul was walking down the road to Damascus with a letter in his hand giving him permission to arrest those who followed Jesus Christ. Saul did not believe Jesus of Nazareth was the Christ(denied it at that time),,He was not in the middle of repenting,being baptized,confessing Christ when Jesus Christ appeared to him.
In Matthew 12:32 Jesus stated that in the age thy were in this would not be forgiven nor in the one coming are you saying one ended and another came and it also ended and we are in it? If so you are not MAD/A9D if you are saying this then you are preterit instead. It's your choice though,lol.
I understand the difference and believe there is a distinction. But since James wrote his Epistle after Acts 9, why did you try to make a case that because he wrote to Jews, he was adding works to faith, whereas here you say the GOG is meant for all?GOK: Gospel of the Kingdom, GOG is gospel of grace. They are 2 distinct gospels, one is meant for the Jews before Acts 9, the other is meant for everyone, Jews and Gentiles after Acts 9.
From your many lols, I see that you are not trying to have a matured debate about our different points of view.
Understand that there are three camps of Lutherans.Guess you did not see the uproar when I used John 20:23 in my thread about the relevance of the Great Commission. Readers were so quick to insist that only Jesus had the power to forgive sins, and were trying to do mental gymnastics to make that verse say something else.
As far as I know, only the Roman Catholic take that verse seriously now, but it is interesting hearing from you that the Lutherans also use that.
I understand the difference and believe there is a distinction. But since James wrote his Epistle after Acts 9, why did you try to make a case that because he wrote to Jews, he was adding works to faith, whereas here you say the GOG is meant for all?
BIG CONTRADICTION!!
A matured debate, we're not on the Gong show...
So it's ok to chuck the Epistle of James since it only applies to the pre- Acts 9 Jewish believers?Acts is a book of transition from GOK to GOG.
James, like many other Jews, was not aware of the significance of the stoning of Stephen in the change of dispensations. So there is no contradiction that his letter, which was clearly written before the Jerusalem Council event in Acts 15, is still based on the GOK.
But I am aware that you are not going to change your mind about this, so lets just agree to disagree.
I always regard debate as learning to understand the other party's viewpoint, why he believe the way he does.
How be it you will not determine the sacrifice of our Lord as not being the final sacrifice among those and will always hold it up at the end of them all right?
What does this mean?
God Made an eternal covenant with the jews.
Interesting, why do you think the grace dispensation began at the particular point? Wasn't Paul already preaching to the Gentiles before the Jerusalem Council?
lol,And Paul you left out Paul shaving his head and agreeing to make those offerings in the temple to God is he in or out of the BoC like you see the 12?