John 5:43 https://biblehub.com/interlinear/john/5-43.htm the way it was spoken in Greek is how it should be determined as spoken because if we suggest how he would have said this in English we would end up looking at it in the language he did say it in. Then we would remember that Jesus was Hebrew and the Jews he spoke to also and that he might have spoken to them in Hebrew and the Gospel was in Greek.
Most likely Jesus spoke in Hebrew, maybe Aramaic, but whatever He spoke was recorded years later in Greek. Yet that agreed upon fact establishes nothing in and of itself. The Greek verb tenses would easily be known by those recording the words of Jesus. Even if you what to contend that the correct translation is 'when' it still by no means establishes the belief that He was referring to the antichrist or the false Messiah.
This is true, this is your best argument yet on the point. (let me look back why we are discussing this matter in the first place. LOL). Ah, found it.! Ok, even if your above argument is correct, that does not preclude the AC from being a Roman, and I believe I've given credible evidence from Daniel 9 why I believe he is Roman...which btw, I don't recall you addressing per se.The Lord is speaking to Jews who did not receive him as the Messiah they were waiting for . And so it would seem to me that if Jesus is speaking of who they were or were not receiving saying they did not receive him as the Messiah then it could only mean that if they did not receive him as the Messiah they obviously would still be looking for one to afterwards come and receive him instead.