Hebrews 5:5-6 says, “…Christ did not exalt himself to be made a high priest, but was appointed by Him who said to him, ‘You are my Son, today I have begotten you’; as he says also in another place ‘You are a priest forever, after the order of Melchizedek.’ The second quote is from Psalms 110: 4 which says, “The LORD has sworn and will not change his mind, ‘You are a priest forever after the order of Melchizedek.’” (The first quote is from Psalm 2:7.)
But who was God speaking to, when He said that? Psalm 110 opens by saying in verses 1-3, “The LORD says to my Lord: ‘Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool.’ The LORD sends forth from Zion your mighty scepter. Rule in the midst of your enemies! Your people will offer themselves freely on the day of your power, in holy garments; from the womb of the morning, the dew of your youth will be yours.” Chapter 5 of Hebrews infers that in Psalm 110, God is speaking to Jesus.
But is he, if Jesus is the son of David? How can one’s son be one’s Lord? Jesus himself asks the question to the Pharisees in Matthew 22:43: “What do you think about the Christ? Whose son is he?” They respond in verse 43, “The son of David.” Jesus then asks, “How is it then that David, in the Spirit, calls him Lord,” then quoting Psalm 110:1-3 above. Jesus then asks in verse 45, “If then David calls him Lord, how is he his son?”
Jesus here, seems to deny being the son of David. Yet it seems by inference that Hebrews argues on the basis of Jesus being the son of David that he is the son of God. Therein lies the flaw. You cannot show by virtue of Psalm 110 that Jesus is the son of God, if you believe that Jesus is the son of David if Jesus denies being the son of David.
Two things to consider:
It has been said that the Hebrews whom the speaker, being Paul or someone else, was speaking to, had already considered themselves Christians, accepting Jesus to be the son of God.
Secondly, as Timothy 2:3-16 says that ALL scripture is breathed out by God, and the Bible, taken as a whole, establishes that the things written about God and Jesus are to be accepted on faith. On that basis we accept Jesus as being the son of God.
How do we then accept Jesus as being the son of David when he himself denies by inference that he is in Matthew 22? Matthew 1:1 starts out by saying, “The book of the genealogy of Jesus Christ, the SON OF DAVID, the son of Abraham.” Did Matthew know something that Jesus didn’t, considering Jesus apparently denies being the son of David in Matthew 22?
The Pharisees couldn’t answer Jesus’ question to them. Maybe there’s an answer somewhere?
But who was God speaking to, when He said that? Psalm 110 opens by saying in verses 1-3, “The LORD says to my Lord: ‘Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool.’ The LORD sends forth from Zion your mighty scepter. Rule in the midst of your enemies! Your people will offer themselves freely on the day of your power, in holy garments; from the womb of the morning, the dew of your youth will be yours.” Chapter 5 of Hebrews infers that in Psalm 110, God is speaking to Jesus.
But is he, if Jesus is the son of David? How can one’s son be one’s Lord? Jesus himself asks the question to the Pharisees in Matthew 22:43: “What do you think about the Christ? Whose son is he?” They respond in verse 43, “The son of David.” Jesus then asks, “How is it then that David, in the Spirit, calls him Lord,” then quoting Psalm 110:1-3 above. Jesus then asks in verse 45, “If then David calls him Lord, how is he his son?”
Jesus here, seems to deny being the son of David. Yet it seems by inference that Hebrews argues on the basis of Jesus being the son of David that he is the son of God. Therein lies the flaw. You cannot show by virtue of Psalm 110 that Jesus is the son of God, if you believe that Jesus is the son of David if Jesus denies being the son of David.
Two things to consider:
It has been said that the Hebrews whom the speaker, being Paul or someone else, was speaking to, had already considered themselves Christians, accepting Jesus to be the son of God.
Secondly, as Timothy 2:3-16 says that ALL scripture is breathed out by God, and the Bible, taken as a whole, establishes that the things written about God and Jesus are to be accepted on faith. On that basis we accept Jesus as being the son of God.
How do we then accept Jesus as being the son of David when he himself denies by inference that he is in Matthew 22? Matthew 1:1 starts out by saying, “The book of the genealogy of Jesus Christ, the SON OF DAVID, the son of Abraham.” Did Matthew know something that Jesus didn’t, considering Jesus apparently denies being the son of David in Matthew 22?
The Pharisees couldn’t answer Jesus’ question to them. Maybe there’s an answer somewhere?