The scriptures I provided certainly did answer your question. Acts 10:43 - Of Him all the prophets bear witness that through His name everyone who
believes in Him receives forgiveness of sins. *What happened to baptism?
Acts 26:18 - to open their eyes so that they may turn from darkness to light and from the dominion of Satan to God, that they may
receive forgiveness of sins and an inheritance among those who
have been sanctified by faith in Me. *What happened to baptism?
Romans 3:24 - Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus: 25 Whom God hath set forth to be a
propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the
remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God; 26 To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the
justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus. 27 Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith. 28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law. *What happened to baptism?
Also, in Acts 13:38-39, we read - Therefore let it be known to you, brethren, that through this Man is preached to you the
forgiveness of sins; and by Him
everyone who believes is justified from all things from which you could not be justified by the law of Moses. *What happened to baptism?
This question placed the Pharisees in a dilemma, because they knew that John was revered by the people. They could not confirm John's ministry without condemning themselves and if they denied the legitimacy of John's ministry, they feared the response of the people.
Repentance and faith result in salvation and water baptism "follows" conversion (Acts 10:43-47; 11:17,18). Acts 20:21 - testifying both to Jews and to Greeks of
repentance toward God and of faith in our Lord Jesus Christ.
In Mark 1:4 and Luke 3:3, was this baptism of repentance (for) "in order to obtain" the remission of sins or was it (for) "in regards to/on the basis of" the remission of sins received upon repentance?
*In Matthew 3:11, we read - I baptize you with water (for) repentance.. *Was this baptism (for) "in order to obtain" repentance? OR was this baptism for "in regards to/on the basis of" repentance? Getting water baptized in order to obtain repentance makes no sense at all because repentance precedes water baptism, yet getting water baptized "in regards to/on the basis of" the remission of sins received upon repentance makes perfect sense.
Luke 24:47 - and that
repentance for forgiveness of sins would be proclaimed in His name to all the nations, beginning from Jerusalem. *What happened to baptism?
Acts 3:19 -
Repent therefore and be converted, that your
sins may be blotted out, so that times of refreshing may come from the presence of the Lord. *What happened to baptism?
Acts 5:31 - Him God has exalted to His right hand to be Prince and Savior, to give
repentance to Israel and
forgiveness of sins. *What happened to baptism? So faith in Jesus Christ (implied in genuine repentance) rather than water baptism brings the remission of sins.
In Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis.
*Also compare the fact that these Gentiles in Acts 10:45 received
the gift of the Holy Spirit (compare with Acts 2:38 -
the gift of the Holy Spirit) and this was
BEFORE water baptism (Acts 10:47).
In Acts 10:43 we read
..whoever believes in Him receives remission of sins. Again, these Gentiles received
the gift of the Holy Spirit - Acts 10:45 -
when they believed on the Lord Jesus Christ - Acts 11:17 - (compare with Acts 16:31 -
Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved)
BEFORE water baptism - Acts 10:47. This is referred to as
repentance unto life - Acts 11:18.
*So the only logical conclusion
when properly harmonizing Scripture with Scripture is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31; 26:18). *Perfect Harmony*
In regards to Acts 22:16, as Greek scholar AT Robertson points out, baptism here
pictures the washing away of sins by the blood of Christ, but it does not literally wash away our sins, contrary to your conclusion. Jamison, Fausset, and Brown Commentary makes not of the importance of the Greek in Ananias' statement. When Ananias tells Paul to "arise, be baptized, wash away your sins, calling on the name of the Lord," the tense of the last command is literally "having called" (aorist middle participle). "Calling on [epikalesamenos] --- 'having (that is, after having) called on,' referring the confession of Christ which preceded baptism." [Jamison, Fausset, and Brown Commentary, vol. 3 pg. 160]. Kenneth Wuest picks up on this Greek nuance and translates the verse as follows: "And now, why are you delaying? Having arisen, be baptized and wash away your sins, having previously called upon His Name." (Acts 22:16, Wuest's Expanded NT).
In Acts 10:43, receiving remission of sins is connected with
"believes in Him" and
not with baptism (Acts 10:43-47). In Acts 9, Jesus told Ananias that Paul "is a chosen vessel unto Me" (vs 15), although the apostle had not yet been baptized. Before Paul was baptized, Christ had already commissioned him to "bear [His] name before the Gentiles, and kings, and the children of Israel" (Acts 9:15); such a commission is not God’s portion for one still lost and under wrath. Before Paul’s baptism, Christ had set him aside as one who would "suffer for His name’s sake" (9:16). Can one who is a child of the devil, as all the lost are (Ephesians 2:1-3, John 8:44), really suffer for Christ’s sake? NO. God accepted Paul’s prayers before his baptism (Acts 9:11). Some may argue that God does not hear an unsaved man's prayer, quoting in this regard John 9:31 - "We know that God does not listen to sinners. He listens to the godly man who does his will." Well, Paul was a worshipper of God, calling Christ "Lord" and then setting out to do His will. All of these things characterized Paul
BEFORE he was water baptized.
So, Paul had already believed in Christ when Ananias came to pray for him to receive his sight (Acts 9:17). It also should be noted that Paul at the time when Ananias prayed for him to receive his sight, he was
filled with the Holy Spirit (Acts 9:17)--this was
BEFORE he was water baptized (Acts 9:18). Verse 17 connects his being filled with the Spirit with the receiving of his sight. We know that he received his sight prior to his baptism.
*It's interesting that when Paul recounted this event again later in Acts (Acts 26:12-18), he did not mention Ananias or what Ananias said to him at all. Verse 18 again would confirm the idea that Paul received Christ as Savior on the road to Damascus since here Christ is telling Paul he will be a messenger for Him concerning
forgiveness of sins for Gentiles as they have faith in Him. It would seem unlikely that Christ would commission Paul if Paul had not yet believed in Him and was not saved.
*No Scripture is to be interpreted in isolation from the totality of Scripture. Practically speaking, a singular and obscure verse is to be subservient to to multiple and clear verses, and not vice versa.
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