Why is praying in tongues necessary?

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Hi thanks for the reply

Nobody claims what, that you think I think they claim? What is it that you think..I think.
Here's what your previous post said: "Trying to widen the authority of the law of tongues by making prayer sounds with no meaning"

That's what I think that you think.

Nobody claims to do that. Yet you are arguing against it.
 
Hi thanks for the reply

...

Scripture shows the Acts 10 account as supporting the law in respect to the sign that confirms certain men have "no faith" that alone comes from hearing God. They refuse to believe in the authority of as it is written alone. The bible.

No, Garee. Acts 10 shows that some Gentiles spoke in tongues when the Holy Spirit fell on them. They were in the presence of Christians (who were formerly Jews), and of other Gentiles who were saved at the same moment.

There was nobody present who had "no faith". There was nobody present who refused "to believe in the authority of as it (sic) is written".

Your view doesn't make sense.
 
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No, Garee. Acts 10 shows that some Gentiles spoke in tongues when the Holy Spirit fell on them. They were in the presence of Christians (who were formerly Jews), and of other Gentiles who were saved at the same moment.

There was nobody present who had "no faith". There was nobody present who refused "to believe in the authority of as it (sic) is written".

Your view doesn't make sense.

It was a sign to the Jews that Gentiles were receiving the Holy Ghost as well simply by hearing and believing.
 
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Here's what your previous post said: "Trying to widen the authority of the law of tongues by making prayer sounds with no meaning"

That's what I think that you think.

Nobody claims to do that. Yet you are arguing against it.

Nobody or just you ?

Are you agreeing with me that the sign confirms those who do not believe God and it has to do with words that have a clear understanding. or are you saying they can be sounds without clear understanding and therefore widen the authority of prophecy, the word of God..

What does the law of tongues confirm ?
 
No, Garee. Acts 10 shows that some Gentiles spoke in tongues when the Holy Spirit fell on them. They were in the presence of Christians (who were formerly Jews), and of other Gentiles who were saved at the same moment.

There was nobody present who had "no faith". There was nobody present who refused "to believe in the authority of as it (sic) is written".

Your view doesn't make sense.
I'm a bit surprised that you do not know that there were in fact men present who were reporting back to those in Jerusalem of the activities of the disciples. Religious spies sending back reports so they could endeavor to silence the disciples and murder them.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 
I'm a bit surprised that you do not know that there were in fact men present who were reporting back to those in Jerusalem of the activities of the disciples. Religious spies sending back reports so they could endeavor to silence the disciples and murder them.

For the cause of Christ
Roger

Scripture?

Good luck.
 
Oh gosh, I have to say that some of the responses of this read are very entertaining and comical! Lol!

It is like watching an Abott and Costello skit......”Who’s on First?” :LOL::giggle:
 
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No, Garee. Acts 10 shows that some Gentiles spoke in tongues when the Holy Spirit fell on them. They were in the presence of Christians (who were formerly Jews), and of other Gentiles who were saved at the same moment.

There was nobody present who had "no faith". There was nobody present who refused "to believe in the authority of as it (sic) is written".

Your view doesn't make sense.

Whats is the (sic) in "to believe in the authority of as it (sic) is written". thanks?

Acts 10 shows that some Gentiles spoke in tongues when the Holy Spirit fell on them giving them the faith of Christ needed to believe in a God not seen previously having no faith that alone comes from hearing as it is written.

They were in the presence of Christians (who were formerly unconverted Jews), and of other Gentiles who were saved at the same moment of hearing the gospel they believed God and prophesied the word of God in the own language while other heard it in their own.

While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which "heard the word". And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost.For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God. Then answered Peter,Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we?Acts10;44-47
 
Whats is the (sic) in "to believe in the authority of as it (sic) is written". thanks?

It shows that the error (grammatical, spelling, word choice, or similar) was in the original quoted and is not an error on the part of the person doing the quoting.

Acts 10 shows that some Gentiles spoke in tongues when the Holy Spirit fell on them giving them the faith of Christ needed to believe in a God not seen previously having no faith that alone comes from hearing as it is written.

You have an amazing ability to convolute the simple. Acts 10 shows that some Gentiles believed the gospel and were filled with the Holy Spirit, the evidence of which was that they spoke in tongues.

They were in the presence of Christians (who were formerly unconverted Jews), and of other Gentiles who were saved at the same moment of hearing the gospel they believed God
Yes.

and prophesied the word of God in the own language while other heard it in their own.
No. It says they spoke in tongues. It says nothing about them prophesying. It says nothing about "their own language". It says nothing about "other (sic) heard it in their own". You're mixing up Acts 2 with Acts 10.

You keep quoting Deuteronomy 4:2 and Revelation 22:18-19, but you aren't follow them yourself. Read what the text of Acts 10:34-48 actually says, and don't inject your own words into it so that it fits your view.
 
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I don’t know is on third base! Lol! :ROFL:
Correct! It's from the original "Who's on First" skit. When Costello gets frustrated, he says, "I don't know", the name of the man playing third base. Eventually, they both yell it at the same time.
 
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Answer 2
You need a word of God?
1.Cor. 12, 30 makes clear that not all are speaking in tongues, as not all have the gift of healing ore can lay out.
And in 1.Cor.14, 26 we read that speaking in tongues is only 1 out 5 ways for edification.
What are the 5 ways?
 
I can see how you misunderstood what I said. So sorry for the confusion. Let me say it more clearly........

Speaking in tongues is necessary meaning that it has a purpose which is to edify; however, it is NOT a gift a believer must have to be edified. It has a purpose, therefore it is necessary.

Any gift God wants to give me, I want to receive because I love Him - the Giver of the gift.

It's God's gift. If I speak against it, I'm not speaking against the gift, I'm speaking against the Giver of the gift. I love God and would never want to speak against a gift of His.

Any gift He has given you, I am not going to say it is not necessary and doesn't exist anymore. I am going to rejoice with you because of the goodness of God.

I hope you understood what I have said.

Thank you for clarify.
But if i read 1.Cor 14 . 26 i cant agree with you. Because their are shown 5 different ways to edify. So praying in tongues is not nessesary to edify myself ore others.