Mark 16: 9-20 inspiration, God or man?

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eternally-gratefull

Guest
Clearly, you guys see the truth, but refuse to believe it because that would mean that God could inspire a bible today.
He inspired a bible 2000 years ago

If he does today he can, but it would be error free,
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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I'll throw out yet another example.

The Lord Jesus also spoke in Hebrew to the apostle Paul, and it was then translated into inspired Greek. We see this in Acts 26:14 to 18 "And when we were all fallen to the earth, I heard a voice speaking to me IN THE HEBREW TONGUE, Saul, Saul, why persecuteth thou me? It is hard for thee to kick against the pricks" And He continues all the way through verse 18 speaking in Hebrew but translated into the inspired Greek text.

How about that. What's impossible for man, is possible for God.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
I have never made the argument that one needs an inspired bible to be saved. I believe, if one seeks ALL truth and wants to live by ALL truth, then one needs the inspired word of truth.
Well again, you just destroyed your own arguments

Yet you cant see it.. lol

This is funny
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
I'll throw out yet another example.

The Lord Jesus also spoke in Hebrew to the apostle Paul, and it was then translated into inspired Greek. We see this in Acts 26:14 to 18 "And when we were all fallen to the earth, I heard a voice speaking to me IN THE HEBREW TONGUE, Saul, Saul, why persecuteth thou me? It is hard for thee to kick against the pricks" And He continues all the way through verse 18 speaking in Hebrew but translated into the inspired Greek text.

How about that. What's impossible for man, is possible for God.
You may convince yourself with this stuff

But you will never convince others with this argument (unless they believe as you do)
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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Nope, still does not work

Keep trying though, maybe one day you may be able to prove your right wirhout having to go out on limbs like this.

But i doubt it.

It still does not answer the language issues, which you continue to ignore.
Denying it, then no explanation, leads me to believe you see it, but don't want to admit it.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
Denying it, then no explanation, leads me to believe you see it, but don't want to admit it.
You always see what you want, so this does not suprise me

As usual, i have given my reasoning as have others, but you deny we even gave it, further destroying your character.
 

oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
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John146 said:
"I can't say for certain. Maybe the Lord had His word translated into English at the perfect time in history, foreseeing the greatest revival movement the world has ever seen through English speaking preachers."

Let me ask you the question again since you did not answer it the first time.
When in history did this happen?
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
Again, harsh words, no explanation.
Already gave it, and everyone here sees it and knows it, just because you disagree does not mean we did not give it, the same arguments we used with your other examples fit here

You denying it just proves how bad you are,,
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
17,097
3,683
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John146 said:
"I can't say for certain. Maybe the Lord had His word translated into English at the perfect time in history, foreseeing the greatest revival movement the world has ever seen through English speaking preachers."

Let me ask you the question again since you did not answer it the first time.
When in history did this happen?
I believe it started withy Wycliffe's translation and was carried out in 1611 with the KJV.
 
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WIbaptist

Guest
I can't say for certain. Maybe the Lord had His word translated into English at the perfect time in history, foreseeing the greatest revival movement the world has ever seen through English speaking preachers.
By that logic all non-Catholics are apostates of Christianity and there was no need for a reformation.
 

oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
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I believe it started withy Wycliffe's translation and was carried out in 1611 with the KJV.
If that is true then why are there so many variations between the 1380 Wycliffe translation and the other eleven English translations leading up to 1611. If they were inspired, there would be no variants. For that matter, why are there so many variants in the KJV between 1611 and 1638? Which one is the inspired text?
 

notuptome

Senior Member
May 17, 2013
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The long ending of Mark is just fine as long as it is not seen in isolation. Mark 16-9-20 must be in complete harmony with the rest of scripture. If your understanding is in conflict then we have an incorrect understanding of Mark 16.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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If that is true then why are there so many variations between the 1380 Wycliffe translation and the other eleven English translations leading up to 1611. If they were inspired, there would be no variants. For that matter, why are there so many variants in the KJV between 1611 and 1638? Which one is the inspired text?
The seven translations were all part of the process of God leading up to His inspired translation in 1611. It's part of the purification process, 7x's.
 

oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
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The seven translations were all part of the process of God leading up to His inspired translation in 1611. It's part of the purification process, 7x's.
If this is true, then the KJV you use today is not an inspired text. It has been revised numerous times since 1611. If the 1611 was inspired then why did the KJV committees choose to revise it so many times?
 

notuptome

Senior Member
May 17, 2013
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The word of God was written by the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. Our modern translations are preserved translations by the Holy Spirit. Translations are not inspired as they are not original but copies of the original.

We need to stop arguing over inspiration and start believing what has been preserved for us. What language you hear Gods word in is not as important as the belief created by the Holy Spirit in the heart of the hearer.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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By that logic all non-Catholics are apostates of Christianity and there was no need for a reformation.
God's word has always been available, just not in pure, complete form in English. If God can save a soul with a few spoken words or a few words written on a tract or t-shirt, He can cause a reformation or revival from incomplete Bibles as well. Everybody knows God’s word was available in several different forms and languages before 1611, but not His complete word in one language.