Speaking in tongues

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.

bygrace

Active member
Dec 3, 2018
150
55
28
1Co 14:27 If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret.
1Co 14:28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.

Those verses say that if any MAN (not group of men) speak in an unknown tongue let it be by two (unknown tongues, not men).

If the passage were talking about two or three men speaking in tongues then verse 28 would have said let THEM keep silence in the church, and let THEM speak to themselves.

I still believe tongues is a gift that's alive and being used today, but I don't think the Charismatic version is it. And what I gave to Garee was a very simplified version of what I really believe. I believe the true unknown tongue is the word of God that's hidden in the symbolic language of the bible.

The true meaning of the bible is hidden in the parables and symbolism... I don't look down or judge anyone who interprets the parables or symbols differently than I do. I've been wrong in my understanding before and I'm sure I'll be wrong again, but hey, it's a journey!
that is your opinion. You speak as if you know how or have seen how the proper use of the gifts has been done in context to 1cor 14:28. what does "let it be by two or three" mean?
 
Nov 23, 2013
13,684
1,212
113
that is your opinion. You speak as if you know how or have seen how the proper use of the gifts has been done in context to 1cor 14:28. what does "let it be by two or three" mean?
Yes it is my opinion and I'm not trying to change your's because tongues is not a big deal in the scheme of things unless it's interpreted and the interpretation is believed.

I believe that I speak in tongues, and I don't think it's something that can be easily explained to someone. But think about what an unknown tongue is, an unknown tongue is just that - an unknown tongue. Nobody knows it because it doesn't exist as a language for anyone. The hidden message of the bible is the unknown tongue. I'll try to give an example using John 8:43, but most of the bible is this same way.

Joh 8:43 Why do ye not understand my speech? even because ye cannot hear my word.

In that verse Jesus had just got through hammering those guys with Old Testament scriptures about himself, mainly this one: "If ye were Abraham's children, ye would do the works of Abraham."

The "hidden meaning" or "HIS WORD" of that verse (which they didn't get) was that Jesus was talking about the spiritual children of Abraham. Nowhere in the text does it say the "spiritual children". That's the unknown tongue, it's not written down in ANY language, it's hidden underneath the text that the scribes and Pharisees knew forward and backwards yet had no clue what Jesus was saying to them.

The "hidden meaning" of the actual verse - John 8:43 is that "HIS WORD" is hidden in his words (speech). If you understand and agree with all that, then you understand that my speaking in tongues was done in accordance with 1 Corinthians 14:28. If you don't understand or agree with that, then 1 Corinthians 14:28 it doesn't matter lol.

1Co 14:28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.
 
Mar 28, 2016
15,954
1,528
113
again you are unlearned in the word of God. 1cor chapter 14:21-22 is not the full context. You circle your wagon around your bias. You use only two verses to explain three chapters which were written contextually together. You are trying to nail jello to the wall. you allegorize and have a bazaar fixation on what you think is prophecy yet lack understanding in prophesying why?

Not around my bias but the law, His bias . Its the full context of the law .

What do you think the sign confirms and who is speaking against? How do you get I am allorgizing and what is bizarre in lieu of the law? and with all of that law they still will not hear prophecy . Is that it, its bizarre that God mocks those who mock Him by setting up a law as a sign against them?
 
Mar 28, 2016
15,954
1,528
113
that is your opinion. You speak as if you know how or have seen how the proper use of the gifts has been done in context to 1cor 14:28. what does "let it be by two or three" mean?

It means two or three can bring the interpretation of Christ called prophecy. God does not bring prophecy to one and the person must ask another what did he say all I heard was a sound? They all 3000 in one accord heard the witness of God not man . The bible warns of those who say we do need a man to teach us. One is our infallible teacher in heaven we seek His approval as he commands us we study.

In Acts 2 there many more than that. The Jew that refused prophecy in any language thought the men were drunks .The confusion was to great for them.
 
Mar 28, 2016
15,954
1,528
113
Or maybe the enlightened ones that are not afraid of and understand the words cease, fail and vanish away!!!!!!

The perfect has come .I cannot think of any law that might of been forgotten by which we could know Christ more adequately?

I think brother Waggles has a couple to add to confirm something?


Being slain in the spirit falling backward is one? What does it confirm , extra stuff?
 
Nov 23, 2013
13,684
1,212
113
It means two or three can bring the interpretation of Christ called prophecy. God does not bring prophecy to one and the person must ask another what did he say all I heard was a sound? They all 3000 in one accord heard the witness of God not man . The bible warns of those who say we do need a man to teach us. One is our infallible teacher in heaven we seek His approval as he commands us we study.

In Acts 2 there many more than that. The Jew that refused prophecy in any language thought the men were drunks .The confusion was to great for them.
The one that thought the men were drunks told us the truth by saying those men were full of new wine.
 

bygrace

Active member
Dec 3, 2018
150
55
28
Not around my bias but the law, His bias . Its the full context of the law .

What do you think the sign confirms and who is speaking against? How do you get I am allorgizing and what is bizarre in lieu of the law? and with all of that law they still will not hear prophecy . Is that it, its bizarre that God mocks those who mock Him by setting up a law as a sign against them?
there is no law you keep saying, in fact, you don't know what that law is. the context of LAW is the word of God. Why can't you see that? and prophesying is speaking the word of God under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, which produces effectiveness to the hearer.
 

bygrace

Active member
Dec 3, 2018
150
55
28
It means two or three can bring the interpretation of Christ called prophecy. God does not bring prophecy to one and the person must ask another what did he say all I heard was a sound? They all 3000 in one accord heard the witness of God not man . The bible warns of those who say we do need a man to teach us. One is our infallible teacher in heaven we seek His approval as he commands us we study.

In Acts 2 there many more than that. The Jew that refused prophecy in any language thought the men were drunks.The confusion was to great for them.
No, it does not, that is not even the context of 1cor 14 or 13 or 12 for that matter. try staying in 1cor 12 to14 and let us know when you move to Acts 2 Ok. you are causing confusion by not staying in the context of 1cor 12 to 1 chapter. Nothing of drunkness was mentioned in 1cor 12 to 14 chapters.
 

bygrace

Active member
Dec 3, 2018
150
55
28
The perfect has come .I cannot think of any law that might of been forgotten by which we could know Christ more adequately?

I think brother Waggles has a couple to add to confirm something?


Being slain in the spirit falling backward is one? What does it confirm, extra stuff?
wrong the Perfect is Christ who has not returned therefore we live by walking in the Spirit until we have been glorified. If just took a little time to think about it They had the law already. The Old Testament and the words of Christ. I know it hard for you to see it but Paul did not have a KJV Bible. But HE did have the 5 books of the Law and the prophetic writings. So think about your context why would Paul speak of something to come that he already had? Paul had the law. Paul was speaking of Jesus. And why would he promote the LAW when he preached to trust Christ and the LAW profits you nothing? and you build that assertion on two verses lol
 
S

Scribe

Guest
Acts Chapter 2, 5, 8, 9, 10. 19 I Cor chapter 12,13,14 Read all of these references about this gift of the Holy Spirit. It may seem strange to witness it being used by other believers but do not be afraid of it. Read these scriptures and believe only what the Bible says about it not what others say against it. Even though a lot has been said already about this gift, what is often said is distorted, confusing or just plain wrong so I will briefly answer your question and touch on all the main points you should know about this gift.
1) All 120 spoke in tongues on the day of Pentecost in Acts 2. 2) When you read the story it sounds like people from different countries understood the tongues spoken regardless of which 120 was speaking. 3) Some people thought they were just babbling incoherently and accused them of being drunk. (People today think it is babbling and there are stories around the world of people who understood in their own language when someone was speaking in tongues even though it was not that language of the person who heard it.)
4) As you read through the other chapters after chapter 2 which I listed above you will find that there were no people from other countries who heard them in their own language which proves that it does not have to be known languages like some mistakenly claim. They all speak in tongues and magnify God and there is no interpreter and it was public at the time.
5) Paul said he prayed in tongues more than all those in the Corinthian church but he did not do it in church. So he must have been talking about praying privately in tongues. 6) Paul said not to forbid to speak in tongues. He told them how to do use it orderly with the gift of interpretation in the church but he did NOT say it is not needed or not useful. Paul said prophesy was to be desired more than tongues yet he also said that he wished that all would speak in tongues. Paul said you are edified when you speak in tongues. He said that when we pray in tongues we speak directly to God and speak mysteries. Paul said his understanding was unfruitful when he prayed in tongues but that he would do it anyway. Are there people who fake tongues? Probably. Can you tell the difference? I can. Do people use the gift of tongues in church out of order sometimes. Yes. Should we then stop using the gift or teaching about it? No simply direct them to the scriptures and use it correctly. Don't throw the baby out with the bath water just because you see someone act like a fool in church. People who suggest they are not in control when they speak in tongues and can't control themselves when they speak and when they stop speaking are liars and probably just wanting to show off to make people think they are more spiritual than others. Any loud exuberant emotional outbursts that people demonstrate and claim something came over them and they could not control it is a liar. The true gift of tongues is under the control of the speaker. The spirit of the prophet is subject to the prophet.
 
Mar 28, 2016
15,954
1,528
113
there is no law you keep saying, in fact, you don't know what that law is. the context of LAW is the word of God. Why can't you see that? and prophesying is speaking the word of God under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, which produces effectiveness to the hearer.
I would agree Bible is the book of God's perfect law. No theories of men as oral traditions. Ans I can see that prophesying is speaking the word of God under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit by which men can believe God. Its a law written in the law. But I am talking about a specific law that has do with a sign confirming something and some people.

What do you thing the sign attached to the prophecy confirms and who is speaking against, or are you saying its against nothing?
In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord. Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.1 Cor.14:21-22

Is a sign against them that believe, or a sign against them who believe not prophecy. It cannot be both.
 
Mar 28, 2016
15,954
1,528
113
wrong the Perfect is Christ who has not returned therefore we live by walking in the Spirit until we have been glorified. If just took a little time to think about it They had the law already. The Old Testament and the words of Christ. I know it hard for you to see it but Paul did not have a KJV Bible. But HE did have the 5 books of the Law and the prophetic writings. So think about your context why would Paul speak of something to come that he already had? Paul had the law. Paul was speaking of Jesus. And why would he promote the LAW when he preached to trust Christ and the LAW profits you nothing? and you build that assertion on two verses lol
No one said we do not walk by the Spirit until we are gloried even or after we are glorified. The law did not stop being developed when the new testament came . The reformation brought about many changes .Like the law in respect to a sign against those who would not hear any law of God prophecy or the law at the end of new prophecy (Revelation 22 )….do not add or substract now that we have the whole.

And the whole Bible is prophetic writings its why its called the book of prophecy.

The law profits everything. Without it we would have nothing but oral traditions as private interpretations of men, a Pagan society.

Not one jot or tittle will be removed until we receive the goal of our faith our new incorruptible bodies. If we assume that is the perfect and God is still adding to His book of prophecy then the warning at the end of the book of prophecy would be made to no effect.

For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.
He which testifieth these things saith, Surely I come quickly. Amen. Even so, come, Lord Jesus.The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you all. Amen.Rev.22:18-21

How many laws do you think are missing from the book of prophecy the perfect law of God?
 
Mar 28, 2016
15,954
1,528
113
No, it does not, that is not even the context of 1cor 14 or 13 or 12 for that matter. try staying in 1cor 12 to14 and let us know when you move to Acts 2 Ok. you are causing confusion by not staying in the context of 1cor 12 to 1 chapter. Nothing of drunkness was mentioned in 1cor 12 to 14 chapters.
That's were the law (verses 21 -22 1 Cor. 1) in respect to the foundation (Isaiah 28) of tongues is found.

I was saying the ones that the sign is against (not supporting) as those who refuse to "hear prophecy" in any language thought the others were drunk . It was like three fingers pointing right back at them . The ones that heard the interpretation that came from prophecy believed God, no sign just a new heart that God could look a upon and build daily.

Kind of ironic .God mocking the drunks that refused to hear His word and they again are mocking prophecy in Acts 2 . to confirm the sign is against them, with all that and still refused to "hear prophecy" in their own language not being among the 300o that did .

But they also have erred through wine, and through strong drink are out of the way; the priest and the prophet have erred through strong drink, they are swallowed up of wine, they are out of the way through strong drink; they err in vision, they stumble in judgment. For all tables are full of vomit and filthiness, so that there is no place clean.Whom shall he teach knowledge? and whom shall he make to understand doctrine? them that are weaned from the milk, and drawn from the breasts. For precept must be upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little: For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people. To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear.Isaiah 28:7-11


Who are those that he will make understand prophecy as them that are weaned from the milk, and drawn from the breast? Seeing the milk of the word teaches us God is gracious. The drunks he is mocking with stammering lips by brining new prophecy through all the languages of the world and no longer Hebrew alone which they rejected also, or the Christians . It would seem it is the Christian that experience His sabbath rest seeing they do mix faith in what they hear coming from prophecy.
 

bygrace

Active member
Dec 3, 2018
150
55
28
I would agree Bible is the book of God's perfect law. No theories of men as oral traditions. Ans I can see that prophesying is speaking the word of God under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit by which men can believe God. Its a law written in the law. But I am talking about a specific law that has do with a sign confirming something and some people.

What do you thing the sign attached to the prophecy confirms and who is speaking against, or are you saying its against nothing?
In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord. Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.1 Cor.14:21-22

Is a sign against them that believe, or a sign against them who believe not prophecy. It cannot be both.
Ok but you can't use 1co4 14 to make that point because you have to take the passages out of context to do that. Tongues do not confirm anything other than they are a gift of the Holy Spirit what happens after any gift is used Confirms if God was in it. I can give personal experience but it just would be attacked by those who are against just this one gift.

it is foolish. many here say " God used to heal but He can heal, because He is God. God can do anything but, I have not seen it; so God does not do healing as HE uses too."
 

bygrace

Active member
Dec 3, 2018
150
55
28
No one said we do not walk by the Spirit until we are gloried even or after we are glorified. The law did not stop being developed when the new testament came . The reformation brought about many changes .Like the law in respect to a sign against those who would not hear any law of God prophecy or the law at the end of new prophecy (Revelation 22 )….do not add or substract now that we have the whole.

And the whole Bible is prophetic writings its why its called the book of prophecy.

The law profits everything. Without it we would have nothing but oral traditions as private interpretations of men, a Pagan society.

Not one jot or tittle will be removed until we receive the goal of our faith our new incorruptible bodies. If we assume that is the perfect and God is still adding to His book of prophecy then the warning at the end of the book of prophecy would be made to no effect.

For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.
He which testifieth these things saith, Surely I come quickly. Amen. Even so, come, Lord Jesus.The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you all. Amen.Rev.22:18-21

How many laws do you think are missing from the book of prophecy the perfect law of God?
so now the Reformation is perfect that came Ok I see now Wrong! The jot or tittle you used out of Context why?
 

bygrace

Active member
Dec 3, 2018
150
55
28
That's were the law (verses 21 -22 1 Cor. 1) in respect to the foundation (Isaiah 28) of tongues is found.

I was saying the ones that the sign is against (not supporting) as those who refuse to "hear prophecy" in any language thought the others were drunk . It was like three fingers pointing right back at them . The ones that heard the interpretation that came from prophecy believed God, no sign just a new heart that God could look a upon and build daily.

Kind of ironic .God mocking the drunks that refused to hear His word and they again are mocking prophecy in Acts 2 . to confirm the sign is against them, with all that and still refused to "hear prophecy" in their own language not being among the 300o that did .

But they also have erred through wine, and through strong drink are out of the way; the priest and the prophet have erred through strong drink, they are swallowed up of wine, they are out of the way through strong drink; they err in vision, they stumble in judgment. For all tables are full of vomit and filthiness, so that there is no place clean.Whom shall he teach knowledge? and whom shall he make to understand doctrine? them that are weaned from the milk, and drawn from the breasts. For precept must be upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little: For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people. To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear.Isaiah 28:7-11


Who are those that he will make understand prophecy as them that are weaned from the milk, and drawn from the breast? Seeing the milk of the word teaches us God is gracious. The drunks he is mocking with stammering lips by brining new prophecy through all the languages of the world and no longer Hebrew alone which they rejected also, or the Christians . It would seem it is the Christian that experience His sabbath rest seeing they do mix faith in what they hear coming from prophecy.

you are really stretching the word of God You have taken the "jot or Tittle out of context.

I will post it here for all to see your error:

The jot or tittle you speak about comes from
No one said we do not walk by the Spirit until we are gloried even or after we are glorified. The law did not stop being developed when the new testament came . The reformation brought about many changes .Like the law in respect to a sign against those who would not hear any law of God prophecy or the law at the end of new prophecy (Revelation 22 )….do not add or substract now that we have the whole.

And the whole Bible is prophetic writings its why its called the book of prophecy.

The law profits everything. Without it we would have nothing but oral traditions as private interpretations of men, a Pagan society.

Not one jot or tittle will be removed until we receive the goal of our faith our new incorruptible bodies. If we assume that is the perfect and God is still adding to His book of prophecy then the warning at the end of the book of prophecy would be made to no effect.
For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.
He which testifieth these things saith, Surely I come quickly. Amen. Even so, come, Lord Jesus.The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you all. Amen.Rev.22:18-21

How many laws do you think are missing from the book of prophecy the perfect law of God?

you do error here to the word of God.


"Not one jot or tittle will be removed until we receive the goal of our faith our new incorruptible bodies. If we assume that is the perfect and God is still adding to His book of prophecy then the warning at the end of the book of prophecy would be made to no effect."

I will post here for all to see your error and out of context application.

The jot or tittle comes from Matthew 5 Sermon on the Mount.

Jesus was speaking verse 17-18: " Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfill. 18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.

the only person thinking God is adding to His prophecy is you, Jesus is saying in Matthew 5 verses 17 to 20 He is the fulfillment of the Law, as Paul led by the Holy Spirit taught.

NOw if you look at the whole chapter of Mathhew 5 instead of just one verse you see a wonderful teaching of the Law and the issue is the heart of man.


from verse 1-11 Jesus teaches "The Beatitudes" which we all should have in our heart

verses 12- 16 We are to be salt & light = a witness of the Love of God to a loss and dying world

Verses 17-20 Jesus is the one who fulfilled the LAW which is the LAW of Love the Lord thy God with all.
Verses 21-48 Jesus Raises the standard of the written LAW. Only a LAW can be changed by a greater LAW Jesus is the greater

Jesus from verses 21 to 48 shows that those who were teaching the "LAW" were in error. Jesus showed they were wrong about :

anger & reconciliation
Adultery
Divorce
Vows
Your enemies
NOw if you want to know what is the PERFECT of 1cor 13:10 " But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away.

in context to the LAW Matthew 5 Jesus speaking is very hard to not see.
in verses 46-48

46For if ye love them which love you, what reward have ye? do not even the publicans the same? 47And if ye salute your brethren only, what do ye more than others? do not even the publicans so? 48Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect.

the Perfect is LOVE as 1cor chapter 13 says and Jesus is that Perfect Love. which if we follow the letter of the LAW and do so without love we are nothing. Jesus is the "Perfect" because Jesus fulfilled the LAW in HImself is the fulfillment. We Love HIM and our lives when we follow HIm fulfill the LAW too. I digress.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,606
13,863
113
I would agree Bible is the book of God's perfect law. No theories of men as oral traditions. Ans I can see that prophesying is speaking the word of God under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit by which men can believe God. Its a law written in the law. But I am talking about a specific law that has do with a sign confirming something and some people.

What do you thing the sign attached to the prophecy confirms and who is speaking against, or are you saying its against nothing?
In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord. Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.1 Cor.14:21-22

Is a sign against them that believe, or a sign against them who believe not prophecy. It cannot be both.
1 Corinthians 14 does not say that tongues are a sign "against" anyone; it says they are a sign "for" someone.
 

bygrace

Active member
Dec 3, 2018
150
55
28
1 Corinthians 14 does not say that tongues are a sign "against" anyone; it says they are a sign "for" someone.
Dino246 you have said that many of us have he is not going to listen. He is stuck on " signs" yet only of tongues and prophesying which are the same thing with an interpretation as 1cor 14 says.
 

Waggles

Senior Member
Sep 21, 2017
3,338
1,262
113
South
adelaiderevival.com
Show us please. Thanks
Grab your Nave's Topical Bible and read up on the many scriptures pertaing to water baptism in the NT.
Repentance and confession of faith are part of the sacrament of water baptism by full immersion.
All converts, all disciples of the first church we read of in our NT were water baptised.
Repentance > born anew by water and the Spirit.
Even Jesus himself was water baptised to show us all the necessity for righteousness sake that all disciples ought to
follow the example of our Master and emulate his example.

Romans 6 - a chapter dedicated to water baptism and its significance.
plus
12 Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him
from the dead.
13 And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, has he quickened together with him, having forgiven you
all trespasses;
Colossians 2:

6 Therefore leaving the principles of the doctrine of Christ, let us go on unto perfection; not laying again the foundation of
repentance from dead works, and of faith toward God,
2 Of the doctrine of baptisms, and of laying on of hands, and of resurrection of the dead, and of eternal judgment.
Hebrews 6: