So we go from the disciples going to all the cities of Israel with the message of Repent the kingdom of heaven is at hand to a believing remnant of Jews giving out invitations to the wedding feast. Are we basing that on the proleptic "you"?
If there were not a ton of other reasons, NO, it would not be "based" merely on this.
Again, Paul (regarding "the Church which is His body") also makes use of the
"proleptic 'you'" when speaking to, for, and about "the Church
which is His body" which includes all believers of "this present age [singular]," rather than, say, for example, when he used the word
"you" in 2Cor11:2 the [faulty] idea that he was ONLY referring to
the then-current [listeners/readers] Corinthians (rather than the entire "Church
which is His body"--
believers throughout "this present age" [not to all other saints of all OTHER time periods: not to OT saints, not to Trib saints, not to MK saints]).
So, with regard to the Olivet Discourse (and associated passages), it becomes a matter of ascertaining chronology and who is being talked to/for/about, and what the subject is... [etc]. I supplied some of that in an early post, I think...