Christians are making up their own scripture when they hurry fire and brimstone punishment where it is not so in the scripture before Revelation.
Hades, the grave, is the abode of the saved and the unbeliever. There's no punishment there.[/quotes]
Hades/Sheol is not the grave and should never be interpreted as such. The words qeber and Mnemeion, Hebrew and Greek respectively, are always used to refer to the grave, tomb and sepulcher. Sheol and Hades should always be used when referring to the nether regions of where the spirits of the unrighteous dead depart to at the time of death. Both are synonymous defined in scripture as the realm of departed spirits, as can be seen from the following Strong's and Word Help:
Strong's Concordance
hadés: Hades, the abode of departed spirits
Original Word: ᾍδης, ου, ὁ
Part of Speech: Noun, Masculine
Transliteration: hadés
Phonetic Spelling: (hah'-dace)
Short Definition: Hades
Definition: Hades, the unseen world.
HELPS Word-studies
86 hádēs (from
1 /A "not" and
idein/eidō, "see") – properly, the "unseen place," referring to the (invisible) realm in which all the dead reside, i.e. the present dwelling place of all the departed (deceased);
Hades.
I've started posting articles of interest so as to help further a discussion and so as to avoid protracted argument over details that are clearly in scripture. And as pertains to that which is not. I hope this helps.
Bible Ask = Doesn’t Christ’s parable of the rich man and Lazarus prove that we immediately go to heaven or hell after death?
The parable of Lazarus and the rich man (Luke 16:19-31) is often cited as proof of life immediately after death and that ‘good people’ go to heaven and ‘bad people’ go to hell. But there are several reasons why the Bible makes it clear that we should not take this parable literally for it is figurative.
The first reason is the use of the word hell. The Greek word for hell in Luke 16:23 is
hadēs which literally translated is “grave,” or “death.”
Hadēs is the abode of all men, good and bad, until the Resurrection. Literally, Lazarus would be there also after dying. Jesus said that rewards and punishment are give at His coming and not at death ,“Marvel not at this: for the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice, And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation” (John 5:28, 29; also Luke 14:14; Matthew 16:27).
You are already not taking into consideration the scriptures that describe where believers go at the time of death. Only the spirits of the wicked go into Hades at the time of death to begin their punishment. And you are doing exactly what I said that you would, i.e. interpreting the rich man and Lazarus as a parable and thereby getting rid of the evidence. If you and others would just read it in the plain literal sense, the it would mean what it says.
The Greek word gehenna, which is not used in this parable, is used for the ‘hell’ that people experience punishment and fiery torment. The idea that at death men go to a place where they suffer “torment” is completely foreign to the Bible, which plainly teaches us that “the dead know not anything” (Ecclesiastes 9:5). Jesus Himself compared death to sleep (John 11:11, 14). To conclude from this parable alone that Jesus was teaching that at death the wicked are taken to a place of torment and the righteous immediately go to heaven is to make Him here contradict His plain teachings on the state of the dead in other occasions, as well as the teachings of the Bible as a whole. The significance that Jesus used the word hadēs and not gehenna here adds to the fact that He was speaking figuratively.
I'm so sick of people relying on Eccl. 9:5 while ignoring all of the other scriptures that say to the contrary. All you're doing is repeating the same false apologetics which you have heard or read. As far as torment in flame as not being found in scripture, you're just not looking! The proof is all over the place.
2 Cor.5:6 and Phil.1:22-24 makes it very clear that those who die in Christ, their spirits depart from their bodies and they go immediately to be in the presence of Christ.
The second reason is found through the analysis of Luke 16:23-31 in the dialogue between the rich man in “hell” and Abraham in heaven. Can it be that heaven and hell are within speaking distance, and that those in heaven witness the suffering of friends and loved ones in hell without being able to alleviate their torment, while those in hell can observe the bliss of the righteous in heaven? Yet this is precisely what this parable teaches if it is to be taken literally.
You're already confused and that because when the rich man was having a conversation with Abraham, the scripture has them in the same area separated by a chasm. In other words, all parties where down in Sheol/Hades, which is under the earth. The scripture never states that Abraham and Lazarus as being in heaven. It is erroneously assumed by expositors
There are many who believe this parable to be literal and argue that “Abraham’s bosom” is only a figure of speech and that the saints are not literally all resting in his “bosom.” They also say that the proximity of heaven and hell here pictures is also purely figurative. How can parts of a parable be figurative without the whole being figurative? This is not a defined or consistent principle of interpretation.
Abraham's bosom is not referring to the location, but the actual rendering is that Lazarus was taken to be by Abraham's side which is in Sheol/Hades. And as I told others before, parables do not use real names and location, which is what the context of Abraham and Lazarus does. All you're doing is getting rid of the proof. As I said, if you read it in the plain literal sense, then you will understand its meaning. Jesus gave us a glimpse into what takes place after the time of death, demonstrating that the spirit is conscious and existing after the death of the body and that there is not coming back for those who die without faith, as well as no second chances. The wicked are pouring into Hades every day 24/7 and those are the scriptural facts.
The third reason for pointing out the figurative character of this parable is found in Luke 16:24 when the rich man asks Abraham that Lazarus dips his finger in water to relieve the rich man of the heat of the torment. Can a drop of water from a finger alleviate burning heat? Again, this is not realistic and thus figurative.
As I said earlier, I can tell that you are just repeating the same false apologetics that I have already encountered many times. If you were in that type torment and relief would be welcomed, even one drop of water. That's what punishment for sin against a Holy, righteous and eternal God requires. Your reasoning sounds just like what the JW's use. Why not try doing your own studies instead of just repeating what you've read or heard?
You will all find out that what is written regarding the rich man and Lazarus was an actual event and not a parable.