Did Jesus Have The Human Sinful Nature?

[HeRoseFromTheDead]

God does not have His own semen so is lacking in common sense?

GOD who spoke everything into existence can't speak spermatoza into existence?

 

[jaybird88]

It is nonsense because the Greek doesn't say that.

so would that mean every time the bible refers to Jesus as a man its an error being is the corect phrase should be, according to you kinda like a man. kinda like a man is not a man.

 

[pjharrison]

Since you guys are such experts, describe what the sin nature is and how it's passed from person to person.

The sin nature is that part of human beings that impels us to commit sin. It passes through in birth.

 

[HeRoseFromTheDead]

so would that mean every time the bible refers to Jesus as a man its an error being is the corect phrase should be, according to you kinda like a man. kinda like a man is not a man.

Jesus was fully man, but the verse you commented on is not an accurate translation IMO. There's absolutely nothing in the bible that says Jesus became exactly like man to include his sin nature. That's just a blasphemous fantasy made up by our resident expert who doesn't know anything.

 

[HeRoseFromTheDead]

The sin nature is that part of human beings that impels us to commit sin. It passes through in birth.

Define what it is and how it passes from person to person.

 

[pjharrison]

Jesus was fully man, but the verse you commented on is not an accurate translation IMO. There's absolutely nothing in the bible that says Jesus became exactly like man to include his sin nature. That's just a blasphemous fantasy made up by our resident expert who doesn't know anything.

Hebrews 2: 17 For this reason he had to be made like them, fully human in every way, in order that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in service to God, and that he might make atonement for the sins of the people.

 

[HeRoseFromTheDead]

Hebrews 2: 17 For this reason he had to be made like them, fully human in every way, in order that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in service to God, and that he might make atonement for the sins of the people.

Here's a literal translation:

From which he owed according to all to be likened to the brethren, that he should become a merciful and faithful high priest in the things towards God, so as to atone the sins of the people. Hebrews 2:17​

This word means similar, not exactly. Jesus was fully man, but he was only similar to sinful man.

G3666 ὁμοιόω homoioo (hom-oy-oh'-o) v.
1. to assimilate, i.e. compare
2. (passively) to become similar
[from G3664]

G3664 ὅμοιος homoios (hom'-oy-os) adj.
1. similar (in appearance or character)

Vine’s Complete Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words
1. homoioo (ὁμοιόω, 3666), “to make like” (akin to A, No. 1), is used (a) especially in the parables, with the significance of comparing, “likening,” or, in the passive voice, “being likened,” Matt. 7:24, 26; 11:16; 13:24; 18:23; 22:2 (RV, “likened”); 25:1; Mark 4:30; Luke 7:31; 13:18, RV, “liken” (KJV, “resemble”); v. 20; in several of these instances the point of resemblance is not a specific detail, but the whole circumstances of the parable; (b) of making “like,” or, in the passive voice, of being made or becoming “like,” Matt. 6:8; Acts 14:11, “in the likeness of (men),” lit., “being made like” (aorist participle, passive); Rom. 9:29; Heb. 2:17, of Christ in being “made like” unto His brethren, i.e., in partaking of human nature, apart from sin (cf. v. 14).

 

[pjharrison]

Here's a literal translation:

From which he owed according to all to be likened to the brethren, that he should become a merciful and faithful high priest in the things towards God, so as to atone the sins of the people. Hebrews 2:17​

This word means similar, not exactly. Jesus was fully man, but he was only similar to sinful man.

G3666 ὁμοιόω homoioo (hom-oy-oh'-o) v.
1. to assimilate, i.e. compare
2. (passively) to become similar
[from G3664]

G3664 ὅμοιος homoios (hom'-oy-os) adj.
1. similar (in appearance or character)

Vine’s Complete Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words
1. homoioo (ὁμοιόω, 3666), “to make like” (akin to A, No. 1), is used (a) especially in the parables, with the significance of comparing, “likening,” or, in the passive voice, “being likened,” Matt. 7:24, 26; 11:16; 13:24; 18:23; 22:2 (RV, “likened”); 25:1; Mark 4:30; Luke 7:31; 13:18, RV, “liken” (KJV, “resemble”); v. 20; in several of these instances the point of resemblance is not a specific detail, but the whole circumstances of the parable; (b) of making “like,” or, in the passive voice, of being made or becoming “like,” Matt. 6:8; Acts 14:11, “in the likeness of (men),” lit., “being made like” (aorist participle, passive); Rom. 9:29; Heb. 2:17, of Christ in being “made like” unto His brethren, i.e., in partaking of human nature, apart from sin (cf. v. 14).

He was similar. He was different because he was and still is God.

 

[Dino246]

Hebrews 2: 17 For this reason he had to be made like them, fully human in every way, in order that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in service to God, and that he might make atonement for the sins of the people.

Adam was fully human in every way... before he sinned. He didn't become something other than fully human upon sinning. Jesus came appearing as we do, in a human body, probably like Adam's pre-sin body. Jesus could therefore be fully human in every way, but without the sin nature that became Adam's when he ate of the forbidden fruit.

Most of the ideas about how the sin nature is passed on are speculative, because Scripture doesn't tell us the details. I would invoke Occam's Razor on this: in a matter of uncertainty and potential complexity, the simplest explanation is likely the correct one. Though I can't prove it, it makes logical sense that the sin nature is passed from the father to the child, and so by being born of a virgin, Jesus did not inherit the sin nature and therefore could be the spotless sacrifice for sin.

 

[pjharrison]

Adam was fully human in every way... before he sinned. He didn't become something other than fully human upon sinning. Jesus came appearing as we do, in a human body, probably like Adam's pre-sin body. Jesus could therefore be fully human in every way, but without the sin nature that became Adam's when he ate of the forbidden fruit.

Most of the ideas about how the sin nature is passed on are speculative, because Scripture doesn't tell us the details. I would invoke Occam's Razor on this: in a matter of uncertainty and potential complexity, the simplest explanation is likely the correct one. Though I can't prove it, it makes logical sense that the sin nature is passed from the father to the child, and so by being born of a virgin, Jesus did not inherit the sin nature and therefore could be the spotless sacrifice for sin.

Mary was a virgin, but she was also born into sin. Jesus had to die for her too.

 

[shrume]

Jesus was like Adam after the fall in His humanity.

Jesus was like Adam BEFORE Adam fell. Both had the capacity TO sin. Adam sinned, condemning himself and all his progeny to death. Jesus did not sin, and gave his life for the sin (nature) and sins of mankind..

 

[garee]

Adam was fully human in every way... before he sinned. He didn't become something other than fully human upon sinning. Jesus came appearing as we do, in a human body, probably like Adam's pre-sin body. Jesus could therefore be fully human in every way, but without the sin nature that became Adam's when he ate of the forbidden fruit.

Most of the ideas about how the sin nature is passed on are speculative, because Scripture doesn't tell us the details. I would invoke Occam's Razor on this: in a matter of uncertainty and potential complexity, the simplest explanation is likely the correct one. Though I can't prove it, it makes logical sense that the sin nature is passed from the father to the child, and so by being born of a virgin, Jesus did not inherit the sin nature and therefore could be the spotless sacrifice for sin.

When mankind sinned and took on a body of death. No one knows what kind of body was previous Just as no one know what our new incorruptible bodies will be like.

It would seem like one that was gloried to reflect the glory of being in the presence of God, as was Moses receiving the ten commandments... when he had to veil his face to hide the glory . In dying he knew he was naked and tried to cover himself with a corrupted leaf. Previously must likely covered with a light as children of light as son of God.

That veil will be removed form his bride in the new heavens and earth , when the former things of earth will not be remembered or ever come to mind

 

[shrume]

Mary was a virgin, but she was also born into sin. Jesus had to die for her too.

That's right.

 

[pjharrison]

That's right.

He says to the serpent, "And I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your seed and her seed; He shall bruise you on the head, and you shall bruise him on the heel" (Gen. 3:15).

 

[HeRoseFromTheDead]

Most of the ideas about how the sin nature is passed on are speculative, because Scripture doesn't tell us the details. I would invoke Occam's Razor on this: in a matter of uncertainty and potential complexity, the simplest explanation is likely the correct one. Though I can't prove it, it makes logical sense that the sin nature is passed from the father to the child, and so by being born of a virgin, Jesus did not inherit the sin nature and therefore could be the spotless sacrifice for sin.

There's actually traceability in that explanation, whereas in all of the others it's just pure speculation. All inheritance back then came through the father, and we can know beyond a shadow of a doubt what Adam passed onto to his offspring - spiritual death. That in itself is a sin nature because man with a spirit separated from GOD cannot perfectly do GOD's will; he will sin by nature. And this agrees with scripture that says death passed from Adam to all men, upon which (i.e., death) all sinned. In other words, men sin because they are dead.

 

[DevotiontoBible]

Jesus was fully man, but the verse you commented on is not an accurate translation IMO. There's absolutely nothing in the bible that says Jesus became exactly like man to include his sin nature. That's just a blasphemous fantasy made up by our resident expert who doesn't know anything.

I ask again, prove it is blasphemy?

 

[shrume]

He says to the serpent, "And I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your seed and her seed; He shall bruise you on the head, and you shall bruise him on the heel" (Gen. 3:15).

Yes. Since women do not have seed, that is an allusion to the virgin birth. Look through the Bible. There are only two verses where women are said to have seed. One is Genesis 3:15, the other is Rev 12:17, where "the woman" refers to Israel.

Biblically, it is very clear that the seed comes from the male.

 

[DevotiontoBible]

Here's a literal translation:

From which he owed according to all to be likened to the brethren, that he should become a merciful and faithful high priest in the things towards God, so as to atone the sins of the people. Hebrews 2:17​

This word means similar, not exactly. Jesus was fully man, but he was only similar to sinful man.

G3666 ὁμοιόω homoioo (hom-oy-oh'-o) v.
1. to assimilate, i.e. compare
2. (passively) to become similar
[from G3664]

G3664 ὅμοιος homoios (hom'-oy-os) adj.
1. similar (in appearance or character)

Vine’s Complete Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words
1. homoioo (ὁμοιόω, 3666), “to make like” (akin to A, No. 1), is used (a) especially in the parables, with the significance of comparing, “likening,” or, in the passive voice, “being likened,” Matt. 7:24, 26; 11:16; 13:24; 18:23; 22:2 (RV, “likened”); 25:1; Mark 4:30; Luke 7:31; 13:18, RV, “liken” (KJV, “resemble”); v. 20; in several of these instances the point of resemblance is not a specific detail, but the whole circumstances of the parable; (b) of making “like,” or, in the passive voice, of being made or becoming “like,” Matt. 6:8; Acts 14:11, “in the likeness of (men),” lit., “being made like” (aorist participle, passive); Rom. 9:29; Heb. 2:17, of Christ in being “made like” unto His brethren, i.e., in partaking of human nature, apart from sin (cf. v. 14).

You are not comprehending a literal translation. You are ignoring your translation where it says "all to be likened". That means Jesus was like us in every way. You are just plain being dishonest since I have already addressed this claim of yours but you just ignored me and keep repeating yourself.

 

[jaybird88]

Jesus was fully man, but the verse you commented on is not an accurate translation IMO. There's absolutely nothing in the bible that says Jesus became exactly like man to include his sin nature. That's just a blasphemous fantasy made up by our resident expert who doesn't know anything.

if we, (man) are made with this sin nature, and Jesus was fully man, then He would have to have it to. if He didnt have it, no problem, but then you have no choice but to accept that He was not one of us which would make Him not a man.

 

[shrume]

if we, (man) are made with this sin nature, and Jesus was fully man, then He would have to have it to.

You aren't taking into account who Jesus' Father is.

if He didnt have it, no problem, but then you have no choice but to accept that He was not one of us which would make Him not a man.

He was just like Adam was before Adam sinned.