Did Jesus Have The Human Sinful Nature?

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The Bible says that Mary conceived in her womb, not that she received Jesus as an embryo.

Do you understand conception?
Just as God did at creation, he spoke, and it was so. Mary was a virgin. Conceived means she became pregnant. The bible says that the Holy spirit came upon her. The Holy Spirit placed the word(which is Jesus) into her womb.
 
Mary was not "tainted" - she was a virgin - no man had KNOWN her - that is why she was chosen.

Jesus took part of "flesh and blood" . . . that is what he took part of. If he had "tainted" human sinful nature - he could not have been our perfect sacrifice - the Lamb of God.
In the context of our discussion Mary was tainted with the adamic fallen sin nature. Nobody is saying anything about her not being a virgin.
 
In the context of our discussion Mary was tainted with the adamic fallen sin nature. Nobody is saying anything about her not being a virgin.

In a way, you are correct, Mary was born into the sinful nature of mankind, as we all are, but you cannot confuse the fact she was a true virgin with sinful nature, two different things. Jesus came in the form of man, and He was tempted, but He was also completely spotless of sin til the very moment He took all the sins of the world with Him to cross, until that point He had no sin whatsoever.
 
In a way, you are correct, Mary was born into the sinful nature of mankind, as we all are, but you cannot confuse the fact she was a true virgin with sinful nature, two different things. Jesus came in the form of man, and He was tempted, but He was also completely spotless of sin til the very moment He took all the sins of the world with Him to cross, until that point He had no sin whatsoever.
You need to consider the adamic sin nature is a non moral condition and is separate from actually committing sins. Jesus shared our sin nature and died, yet He never committed sins.
 
That's no definition of sin nature. You merely stated that death passed from Adam to his offspring.
I defined the sin nature in detail from Scripture. The term Original Sin is the state of each of us when born. It is also called the sin nature. We have to work hard for food, we eat food, we physically die. Because of that, this nature gives us urges towards sin and death.
 
I don't see how He could have had a sin nature when the doctrine was not invented until 400 years after He ascended.
 
I don't see how He could have had a sin nature when the doctrine was not invented until 400 years after He ascended.

That's a logical fallacy. The understanding of something does not necessarily predate its existence. Usually, the reverse occurs. The doctrine of the Trinity was formalized several hundred years after Jesus walked the earth as well, but that doesn't make it false. :)
 
He certainly did not!

He was tempted in ALL points like as we are, yet without sin. Hey 2v17,18, 4v15.
"without sin" means Jesus never sinned not that He did not share our fallen adamic sin nature.:

This High Priest of ours understands our weaknesses, for he faced all of the same testings we do, yet he did not sin.
Hebrews 4:15 NLT
https://bible.com/bible/116/heb.4.15.NLT

I shared several Bible translations showing He partook of our sinful nature.
 
You didn't understand what I was saying. Mary was his earthly mom. It was a virgin birth. The Holy Spirit placed Jesus into Mary's womb. Jesus is God made flesh.
so she is but she isnt? and the Most High is flesh? I always thought the Most High is spirit. so confusing . . .
John 4:24
God is spirit, and those who worship him must worship in spirit and truth.”