Speaking in tongues
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The word is "gist". Given that I can point out errors of usage in your posts, I would suggest that your insult regarding my comprehension is without merit.
Had you simply responded, "You may have missed some of the context which explains my post" that would be fine, but you chose to go straight to insulting me. Next time, try being polite instead of a jack-donkey, even if you do think my comment is off-base.
As it is, I read your posts prior and subsequent to the one to which I responded. Your defense fails. However, I won't hold your insolence against you, as Christ already paid for it.
Had you simply responded, "You may have missed some of the context which explains my post" that would be fine, but you chose to go straight to insulting me. Next time, try being polite instead of a jack-donkey, even if you do think my comment is off-base.
As it is, I read your posts prior and subsequent to the one to which I responded. Your defense fails. However, I won't hold your insolence against you, as Christ already paid for it.
Ever hear of spellcheck ? ..lol I'll ask you what I asked a couple of others last evening .. and where this convo started. Your thoughts ?
"If (though) I speak in the tongues of men or of angels, but do not have love, I am only a resounding gong or a clanging cymbal."
We know and would all agree, I'm certain, that tongues means languages. 1 Corinthians 13:1 uses the term tongues in the plural sense .. as in more than one.
Mankind speaks/communicates in many languages. Can we also conclude then that there is more than one angelic language as well ?
Notice that Paul said ... "the tongues of men or of angels" ... both referenced plural. Couldn't I use the same reasoning that the angelic language proponents use today (to prove the existence of such) to also declare that the Seraphims, the Cheribums and/or even the Archangels all speak a language different from one another in heaven ?
Seriously people ... does this make sense or sound like something God would do ? Our God, Who is not the author of confusion ?
"If (though) I speak in the tongues of men or of angels, but do not have love, I am only a resounding gong or a clanging cymbal."
We know and would all agree, I'm certain, that tongues means languages. 1 Corinthians 13:1 uses the term tongues in the plural sense .. as in more than one.
Mankind speaks/communicates in many languages. Can we also conclude then that there is more than one angelic language as well ?
Notice that Paul said ... "the tongues of men or of angels" ... both referenced plural. Couldn't I use the same reasoning that the angelic language proponents use today (to prove the existence of such) to also declare that the Seraphims, the Cheribums and/or even the Archangels all speak a language different from one another in heaven ?
Seriously people ... does this make sense or sound like something God would do ? Our God, Who is not the author of confusion ?
I followed it up with this post .. and this is where I will leave it.
How many times has this blasphemy card been played by you and others ? Nobody here is speaking against the Holy Spirit. You claim your tongue speaking to be a heavenly language. I don't believe your claim. How many languages are there in heaven ? Remember .. Paul said .. "the tongues (languages) of angels". Either Paul was speaking hyperbole to make a point or the various types of angels in heaven all speak a language different from one another. Does this make sense to you ?
How many times has this blasphemy card been played by you and others ? Nobody here is speaking against the Holy Spirit. You claim your tongue speaking to be a heavenly language. I don't believe your claim. How many languages are there in heaven ? Remember .. Paul said .. "the tongues (languages) of angels". Either Paul was speaking hyperbole to make a point or the various types of angels in heaven all speak a language different from one another. Does this make sense to you ?
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Maybe you're more than a little confused and don't recognize it. You never asked him to clarify to whom he was speaking.
You asked Purple Candles that question in post 1,005
PurpleCandles said:
If you want to pester Christians on a forum at least spend the time to learn what the Bible says about the subject you want to tear apart thinking you're upsetting folks.
Well, I think it just a matter of time before the door closes on you here.
purple...it would be a big aid to know who you are talking to
could you please quote the person you are talking to? gets confusing otherwise
thanks
You asked Purple Candles that question in post 1,005
PurpleCandles said:
If you want to pester Christians on a forum at least spend the time to learn what the Bible says about the subject you want to tear apart thinking you're upsetting folks.
Well, I think it just a matter of time before the door closes on you here.
purple...it would be a big aid to know who you are talking to
could you please quote the person you are talking to? gets confusing otherwise
thanks
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Someone like that who expells their hatred for the faith and the faithful deserves to either be prayed for in hopes God will move their heart. Or ignored so as to give peace to those in Christ not deserving of being plagued by devils. You are right though. That it proceeds unencumbered here is suspect. God be with you.
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Someone would have to prove with God's word that tongues are spoken by the saints there now.
With missionaries in the field all over the world today can we rightly say God would not gift them the capacity to speak the tongue of those whom they come across?
I think we are remiss in spending any time in arguing what we first believe what God will not do when we first believe in an all powerful all knowing God.
With missionaries in the field all over the world today can we rightly say God would not gift them the capacity to speak the tongue of those whom they come across?
I think we are remiss in spending any time in arguing what we first believe what God will not do when we first believe in an all powerful all knowing God.
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he and I have no problem
you just got here and you may think it's all about you but it isn't
why did you join? did you think in some way we were all missing your brilliance?
you stuck your nose in the middle of an innocent question and decided there is something wrong
there is. but not with him or me
ignored and my pleasure to do so
you just got here and you may think it's all about you but it isn't
why did you join? did you think in some way we were all missing your brilliance?
you stuck your nose in the middle of an innocent question and decided there is something wrong
there is. but not with him or me
ignored and my pleasure to do so
You have a very big problem with being proven wrong. And you're sooooooo rage filled. But, God knows, you're still wrong. THAT my dear is your problem. That's a great first impression that arrived early on for any newbie. Not just your rage here in this matter but elsewhere. Peace in Christ. You clearly need that.
You were wrong. Get over it. And it isn't self righteous to know you were wrong.So you're wrong again.
You were wrong. Get over it. And it isn't self righteous to know you were wrong.So you're wrong again.
Speaking in tongues is not for missionary work. There is no scripture that says speaking in tongues is for sharing the gospel.
It is Christians speaking to God (1 Cor 14:2), in a language he does not understand (1 Cor 14:2, 14), divine secrets (1 Cor 14:2). It is for the believer's edification (1 Cor 14:4; Jude 20), and when interpreted, it edifies the church (1 Cor 14:5). It is giving thanks well (1 Cor 14:17). It is praying in the spirit (1 Cor 14:14-15).
It is something God would like all Christians to do (1 Cor 14:5).
It is Christians speaking to God (1 Cor 14:2), in a language he does not understand (1 Cor 14:2, 14), divine secrets (1 Cor 14:2). It is for the believer's edification (1 Cor 14:4; Jude 20), and when interpreted, it edifies the church (1 Cor 14:5). It is giving thanks well (1 Cor 14:17). It is praying in the spirit (1 Cor 14:14-15).
It is something God would like all Christians to do (1 Cor 14:5).
It is always a shame when someone insists on their interpolation. You are not equipped to discuss this topic when you are that unaware of tongues beginning in scripture.
To the sisters and brothers here, has it always been this contentious at this site? People who don't know the scriptures getting so angry and confrontational against Christians who do?
To the sisters and brothers here, has it always been this contentious at this site? People who don't know the scriptures getting so angry and confrontational against Christians who do?
If it were evident today that earthly languages were being spoken by those unlearned in them and declaring the wondrous works of God, who could argue that tongues have been ceased ? I know I wouldn't. But myself and many many other believers today have yet to see the evidence of such.
But we do hear much of speaking an angelic language today ... or languages ? And who can debate something that can't be rightly verified in the sense that we have nothing to compare it to, linguistically speaking ?
I contend that Paul was speaking hyperbole in 1 Corinthians on this matter. And I also contend that I could easily reason and make the argument that the angels in heaven speak a different language amongst themselves as well .. even though we have no such evidence given us.
But we do hear much of speaking an angelic language today ... or languages ? And who can debate something that can't be rightly verified in the sense that we have nothing to compare it to, linguistically speaking ?
I contend that Paul was speaking hyperbole in 1 Corinthians on this matter. And I also contend that I could easily reason and make the argument that the angels in heaven speak a different language amongst themselves as well .. even though we have no such evidence given us.
Please tell me what I have "interpolated".
I am very familiar with Acts 2. The others present on the day of Pentecost heard the apostles speaking the wonderful works of God. After they were done speaking in tongues, Peter got up and shared the gospel in the commonly known language.
Please show me a scripture that demonstrates or says that speaking in tongues is for spreading the gospel.
I am very familiar with Acts 2. The others present on the day of Pentecost heard the apostles speaking the wonderful works of God. After they were done speaking in tongues, Peter got up and shared the gospel in the commonly known language.
Please show me a scripture that demonstrates or says that speaking in tongues is for spreading the gospel.
Please tell me what I have "interpolated".
I am very familiar with Acts 2. The others present on the day of Pentecost heard the apostles speaking the wonderful works of God. After they were done speaking in tongues, Peter got up and shared the gospel in the commonly known language.
Please show me a scripture that demonstrates or says that speaking in tongues is for spreading the gospel.
I am very familiar with Acts 2. The others present on the day of Pentecost heard the apostles speaking the wonderful works of God. After they were done speaking in tongues, Peter got up and shared the gospel in the commonly known language.
Please show me a scripture that demonstrates or says that speaking in tongues is for spreading the gospel.
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Spellcheck will not catch errors of usage when an incorrect but otherwise sound word is used.
I read these posts, and chose not to engage in that part of the conversation, because I think you are both in error. The assertion that "tongues of men and angels" means many tongues of men and many tongues of angels is possible but not required by any means. Tongues is pluralized, because men do speak many tongues. Add the language of angels (assuming for the moment that it is singular) and "tongues" is still plural. That's an error of interpreting the language on the part of the other person.
The assertion bolded immediately above is another error, this time of logic rather than language. It is a false dichotomy, where two options are placed in opposition without consideration of the existence of a third or additional options, which do exist in this case.
In case you misread the tone of my post where I first addressed your reasoning, it was not a personal attack. Perhaps I could have been more clear on that point, and if it was taken as such, I offer my apology.
I read these posts, and chose not to engage in that part of the conversation, because I think you are both in error. The assertion that "tongues of men and angels" means many tongues of men and many tongues of angels is possible but not required by any means. Tongues is pluralized, because men do speak many tongues. Add the language of angels (assuming for the moment that it is singular) and "tongues" is still plural. That's an error of interpreting the language on the part of the other person.
The assertion bolded immediately above is another error, this time of logic rather than language. It is a false dichotomy, where two options are placed in opposition without consideration of the existence of a third or additional options, which do exist in this case.
In case you misread the tone of my post where I first addressed your reasoning, it was not a personal attack. Perhaps I could have been more clear on that point, and if it was taken as such, I offer my apology.
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