there is a shocking question in this chapter:
Why, then, was the Law given at all?
(Galatians 3:19)
one does not ask this question unless the argument being given has naturally led to the conclusion that the Law is somehow unnecessary, absent, superfluous or extraneous.
Gal. 3:
19 Wherefore then
serveth the law?
It was added because of transgressions,
till the seed should come to whom the promise was made;
and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.
I have asked you these questions before and you ignore them. I'll ask again.
What were the "Works of the Law" "ADDED" to? What was being "Transgressed" that inspired God to "ADD" a Law "until the seed should come"?
Did Abraham have God's Laws? Did Abraham have the Levitical Priesthood, or was it "ADDED" 430 years later?
it reminds me of another shocking question Paul posed:
What then shall we say? Shall we continue in sin so that grace may increase?
(Romans 6:1)
What then? Shall we sin because we are not under law, but under grace?
(Romans 6:15)
the answer is clearly no - but the fact that the question comes up at all means that the argument being presented - the gospel of Christ crucified and risen - naturally leads to such a conclusion: that grace abounds triumphantly over sin, that we are not under the Law, that the curse of the Law and the sting of sin are powerless over us. that grace abounds all the more in the presence of sin, so... ?
There was a question regarding the "Law of Moses".
Not a question about whether we are free to murder people, or hate our brothers, or hate God, to lie to each other, or steal from each other. This behavior is not Lawful, not righteous, and not acceptable to God as Paul spells out over and over. Even Cain knew this.
So what was the question?
The Pharisees, who didn't believe Jesus was the Messiah, were STILL preaching the duties of the Priesthood for salvation. They continued to perform duties of the Levite Priest even though they were no longer "priests" of God.
Are sins forgiven, is righteousness gained, were they justified by the "Works of the Law" Moses received from God specifically designed for the Levite Priests for the atonement of sins?
Is "righteousness" achieved by these "works of the Law"? Was Abrahams sin atoned for by these "Works of the Law"? No, Abraham Loved God, and obeyed God's Laws, but Levi was not even born yet. He was "Justified" apart from this Law. This Law was not even "ADDED" until 430 years later.
This is the truth about Gal. 3 Post.
It is religious tradition which transgresses the Commandments of God that preach there was no "ADDED" Law, that Abraham didn't have God's Laws. That there is no difference between the duties of the Priesthood and the Commandments God prepared beforehand that we all should walk in them, as did Abraham.
This false teaching is the root foundation of most of the teaching in mainstream Christianity and is the reason the Bible tells us to "Beware of men" "Take Heed no man deceive us" "test the spirits" and to "Come out of her My people".
It is both sad and frustrating that religious people absolutely refuse to accept the Love of the Truth regarding the "Law of Faith" we are to be judged by.
8 For by grace are ye saved
through faith; and
that not of yourselves:
it is the gift of God:
9 Not of (Mans) works, lest
any man should boast.
10 For we are his workmanship,
created in Christ Jesus unto good works,
which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them. (Like Abraham did)
But I have to remember, Jesus said it would be that way.
Jer. 6:16 Thus saith
the LORD,(Word which became Flesh) Stand ye in the ways, and see, and ask for the old paths, where
is the good way,
and walk therein, and
ye shall find rest for your souls.
But they said,
We will not walk therein.
As it is to this day.