Right, but I just meant to say that just because all humans agree on something, does not make it objective.But my example was not about being eating by animal, it was about murdering of an innocent person.
So my example is not about "something is good for a wolf, something is good for a sheep".
Right, but I just meant to say that just because all humans agree on something, does not make it objective.
I'm not sure what you mean. I think it is wrong to murder an innocent person, yes. It is always wrong to me, and probably to most people. I don't think it is objectively wrong, because there is no such thing as objectively wrong.OK, but I do not base anything on agreement of amount of humans.
Is it wrong or not? Is my presumption logically valid? Is it always wrong? Regardless if somebody agrees.
I'm not sure what you mean. I think it is wrong to murder an innocent person, yes. It is always wrong to me, and probably to most people. I don't think it is objectively wrong, because there is no such thing as objectively wrong.
It is dependent on humans, that's what I said.Thats a bad reasoning.
You (subjectively) do not belive there is something that is objectively wrong and therefore to murder an innocent person is just a subjective thing for you, even though you cannot find anything subjective its dependent on.
What is your definition of objective?Thats a bad reasoning.
You (subjectively) do not belive there is something that is objectively wrong and therefore to murder an innocent person is just a subjective thing for you, even though you cannot find anything subjective its dependent on.
So, logic pushes it to be objective, but your disbelief in objectivness makes you to reject it.
It is dependent on humans, that's what I said.
What is your definition of objective?
I'm not sure what you mean by moral law. I agree that the murderer is morally ill, but the murderer obviously does not. So, yes, it is subjective.Can you define the difference between a living body but without conciousness (like somebody being on intensive care support) and
How exactly is it dependent on humans or on their opinions?
If some psychopat thinks its a good thing to murder somebody innocent on a street, does the moral law as such become subjective? No, its still objectively wrong and the murderer is morally ill.
I'm not sure what you mean by moral law. I agree that the murderer is morally ill, but the murderer obviously does not. So, yes, it is subjective.
Of course not. The theory of relativity is something that can be calculated and demonstrated by experiment. Your individual biases, feelings and imaginings do not change the outcome. Can you demonstrate by experiment that murdering an innocent person is wrong?So when I do not agree with the theory of relativity, its not an objective law?
Of course not. The theory of relativity is something that can be calculated and demonstrated by experiment. Your individual biases, feelings and imaginings do not change the outcome. Can you demonstrate by experiment that murdering an innocent person is wrong?
No prob, I need to go away from my PC for now...trofimus, this discussion has been super interesting, but I really have to work on my thesis now.
In general, it is genetically beneficial not to hurt others. After all, you share at least 99% of your genes with other humans. Sure, there might be scenarios where a man's best option for promoting his genes would be to rape a woman, but genes don't deal with "scenarios", only what works in general.
Genes don't decide anything about promoting themselves. The ones that stick around are just the ones that make an organism best adapted to survive in an environment.
But like I mentioned, genes provide only basic moral instincts. The specifics are cultural.