KING JAMES VERSION BIBLE VS. MODERN ENGLISH BIBLES

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MarcR said:
The only thing corrupt is your own mind! If you continue attacking God's Word you are likely to also find yourself BANNED; and deservedly so!
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The truth proves that the modern versions are corrupt.
And analysis shows they are corrupt by design in preparation for the predicted falling away.
And you’re mistaken if you think God is going to preserve or defend the modern versions.

Aren’t you someone that doesn’t believe God preserved his written word?
 
Joseppi said:
The truth proves that the modern versions are corrupt.
And analysis shows they are corrupt by design in preparation for the predicted falling away.
And you’re mistaken if you think God is going to preserve or defend the modern versions.

Aren’t you someone that doesn’t believe God preserved his written word?
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Big words. No evidence.
 
MarcR said:
The words 'the brother of' are indeed missing in the Hebrew text in both 2Sa 21:19 and 1Ch 20:5.

It can be argued that the Hebrew text was damaged and the correction was justified

Other translations correctly omit the missing words.

I t can be argued that it is a translator's job to translate the text not to repair it.

Most translations add a footnote stating that the words 'the brother of' are missing from the Hebrew text

Bringing this up over and over will not change the truth. The only thing corrupt is your own mind!
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It easier to see that the modern bibles are so corrupt that even a child would notice.
Missing words in bibles translators claim they are working to restore to original condition?
 
Joseppi said:
The truth proves that the modern versions are corrupt.
And analysis shows they are corrupt by design in preparation for the predicted falling away.
And you’re mistaken if you think God is going to preserve or defend the modern versions.

Aren’t you someone that doesn’t believe God preserved his written word?
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I most certainly believe that God does indeed preserve His written word.

I believe that God elects to use imperfect men both to record and to transmit His perfect truth.

I believe that god allows human error in the process but does not allow human error to corrupt His message.

I believe ALL translations of God's word contain human error that is NOT of such a nature that God's message is compromised.

I believe that the BIBle, regardless of translation, is the ultimate standard of truth; and anything that contradicts it is a lie or an error [human errors contained therein not withstanding].
 
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Joseppi said:
It is Easter not passover.
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Agreed.

Joseppi said:
Acts 12:3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)

Note that Passover was already over in Acts 12:3.

Acts 12:4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

And so, Herod waited till after Easter since Passover was over.
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The Days of Unleavened Bread do occur after Passover, but right after, and they are associated with Passover, forming part of the same festal season.

Joseppi said:
The word translated as Passover in modern versions refers to Jesus as the passover lamb.
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No, it doesn't. It's "pascha", the same word translated as "Passover" elsewhere in the KJV. There is no justification evident in the text to translate it as anything other than "Passover".

What you and the other KJV-onlyists need to do is come up with some first-century evidence that Christians in the earliest decade of the church celebrated "Easter" as distinct from "Passover" and then come up with textual evidence that justifies the use of the term instead of "Passover". So far, there has been nothing approaching either.
 
John146 said:
One contains the truth, all the others contain a contradiction of the truth. If a version contradicts itself, it cannot be trusted. The word of truth never contradicts itself.
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Joseppi said:
Because they all are corrupt and present a false antichrist prophecy that is contrary to the truth about Jesus Christ of Nazareth.
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These are aggressive, offensive posts and should be moderated. Direct attacks on the Bible itself like this shouldn't be tolerated.
How long would an atheist be allowed to continue these assaults? These people are professing Christians but trying to divide the Church and destroy the witness of the Biblical texts.
 
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Nehemiah6 said:
If the problems were insignificant do you really think people would make an issue out of them? Obviously you have not familiarized yourself with the problems, since that would be an eye-opener and you would change your stance 180 degrees.

Start by reading The King James Bible Defended by Edward F. Hills ...
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Every recommendation you post is heavily tainted by your rude, closed-minded and insulting refusals to read James White's work on the subject of the KJV-only movement. When you get some intellectual integrity, then you might have some credibility as well.
 
Joseppi said:
See...”the Passover lamb” is what is referred to, as proven by Passover having been over before Peter was even arrested.
And it doesn’t say, “after the feast of unleavened bread”.
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IF this were a valid comment (which it is not), it would still be a self-refuting argument, because "pascha" should then be translated as "Passover lamb" in the KJV.
 
Dino246 said:
IF this were a valid comment (which it is not), it would still be a self-refuting argument, because "pascha" should then be translated as "Passover lamb" in the KJV.
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If Ostern (Easter in German) means Passover then why does it bother you for the KJV to use it?
 
Lucy-Pevensie said:
These are aggressive, offensive posts and should be moderated. Direct attacks on the Bible itself like this shouldn't be tolerated.
How long would an atheist be allowed to continue these assaults? These people are professing Christians but trying to divide the Church and destroy the witness of the Biblical texts.
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Really? Go back and read all of the attacks on the KJV. I never see you pipe in when the KJV is attacked. The truth of the matter is David slew Goliath and Elhanan killed the brother of Goliath. The truth is the new versions contradict themselves and you know it. You also know your updated NIV aligned itself with the KJV in order to contain the truth of 2 Samuel 21:19.
 
KJV1611 said:
If Ostern (Easter in German) means Passover then why does it bother you for the KJV to use it?
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The KJV was not translated to German or from German. Frankly it doesn't bother me, but I do consider it an error and therefore enough to refute the idea that the KJV is "pure, perfect, and inerrant".
 
Dino246 said:
Every recommendation you post is heavily tainted by your rude, closed-minded and insulting refusals to read James White's work on the subject of the KJV-only movement. When you get some intellectual integrity, then you might have some credibility as well.
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Nehemiah6, takes it upon himself to correct and reprimand others continuously yet he never addresses the lunatic fringe of KJVO supporters. Straining out gnats and swallowing camels........
 
John146 said:
Really? Go back and read all of the attacks on the KJV. I never see you pipe in when the KJV is attacked. The truth of the matter is David slew Goliath and Elhanan killed the brother of Goliath. The truth is the new versions contradict themselves and you know it. You also know your updated NIV aligned itself with the KJV in order to contain the truth of 2 Samuel 21:19.
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Your charge of self-contradiction applies to the KJV also, but you refuse to accept it. When will you understand that any standard you use for other translations must be applied to the KJV also?
 
Dino246 said:
Your charge of self-contradiction applies to the KJV also, but you refuse to accept it. When will you understand that any standard you use for other translations must be applied to the KJV also?
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Post a contradiction in the KJV and I'll take a look. So far, none have been posted.
 
Dino246 said:
The KJV was not translated to German or from German. Frankly it doesn't bother me, but I do consider it an error and therefore enough to refute the idea that the KJV is "pure, perfect, and inerrant".
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It's considered an error just because they chose to follow Wycliffe's word choice. That just seems unreasonable to me.
 
Lucy-Pevensie said:
Yes, really. No one here has called the KJV Satanic. Or "of the antichrist"
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Nor have we called it corrupted. I see it has errors, but I wouldn’t say it’s corrupted/perverted as KJVO’ers call MV’s.

They bash our bibles and then cry like a baby with a wet diaper when we come back at them.
 
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