I don’t it’s bound to any version but whatever version it is, it won’t have mistakes. I see that in the KJV. I see people not liking word choices in the KJV but I’ve never seen an error in the KJV.
And the question needs to be raised again - how would you know???
This is a
TECHNICAL question that requires knowledge of the original languages, including Latin in the case of the KJV, as well knowledge of how to translate languages!
By your own admission you have
ZERO qualifications to draw such a conclusion.
In fact you have preferred taking the route of deliberate ignorance in order to continue making hopelessly unjustifiable claims....
I think that you just need to own up to the reality that you are not in a position to make dogmatic claims about the apparent "inspiration" and "inerrancy" of the KJV!