Genesis 3:16 "To the woman he said, 'I will make your pains in childbearing very severe; with painful labor you will give birth to children. Your desire will be for your husband, and he will rule over you."
Paul's words are not clear because there is no clear law stating that women must be silent.
If Paul refers to Genesis 3:16 as a command, then why does the first part of it merely state what "will" happen (painful childbirth)? Are women commanded to have painful childbirth, or is that a statement of certain consequence? Are women who opt for epidural anaesthetic transgressing the "commandment" to have painful childbirth? Really? Give your head a shake, man.
And why does it only mention "your husband" if it applies to all women at all times?
At best, this verse speaks to wives, not to women in general. It cannot legitimately be applied to unmarried women, nor to every man having authority over every woman.
Further, consider this: Why would God, Who is loving, just, and righteous, put now-sinful man in authority over women? Were males somehow less sinful than females? I don't think so. The legacy of violence toward and oppression of women by men testifies to this being a consequence, not a statement of God's desire or intention. If it were God's command that men rule over women, then the more overbearing and restrictive a man is, the more he is fulfilling the "commandment". Is that really your view? I hope not.