I like that argument MarcR but isn't Easter the fulfillment of Passover, Unleavend Bread, and Firstfruits?
KING JAMES VERSION BIBLE VS. MODERN ENGLISH BIBLES
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How could it be?
There was no such thing for a Jew or an early Christian in the Apostolic age!
Easter did NOT exist!!!!???!!!!!!!!!
I'm talking about the meaning of Easter, I'm not talking about the apostolic age.
You have already been shown that in 1611 Easter referred to a fertility goddess; not the resurrection; and because of the bad translation, pagan fertility rites have been conflated with the Resurrection. I can't believe that this was inspired!
The meaning of Easter for us it irrelevant. Luke was just using Jewish regular event to tell us when that thing in Acts happened. Nothing more.
And it happened after Pascha.
I don't think you're getting my point but that's ok.... I'm getting tired of this.
Do you have an opinion of why the translators chose the word Easter? I mean in your view Easter is basically a blasphemous word. Do you think the translators were ignorant and forgot what pascha meant when they got to that verse? I'm just interested in your thoughts as to why they did it.
I don't think you're getting my point but that's ok.... I'm getting tired of this.
Yes, I am usually not getting your points
The goal of Luke was to tell us when that event happened. With word "Easter" we cannot identify it, because modern Easter is not at that time and ancient Easter was a pagan holiday celebrated in a totally different time.
So, for a correct reading, the word "Pascha" needs to be used, as also Luke uses.
The KJV uses anachronism, the same as with "candle", "brass" or lets say "computer" instead of pergamen.
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Have you any idea how silly this sounds!
The word and the concept of easter (it was a pagan festival) did not exist for the people who wrote the New testament.
You need to accept that the word "Easter" does NOT belong in any translation of the Bible in ANY language at ANY time!
There is just no getting away from the fact that the word translated "Easter" in the KJV is "πάσχα " which means "Passover".
No amount of sophistry can change this.
This is an error of translation and there is no denying it!
It is likely that the word "Easter" in the KJV actually did not come from a Greek language manuscript but from the Latin Vulgate.
If I dug deep enough I could probably confirm it, but its source is immaterial - it is an error....
Let's take a step back for a moment. Did you know that passover had already been fulfilled in the book of Acts?
The KJ translators didn't have a complete set of manuscripts to use, they had bits missing so they used other sources like The Latin Vulgate to "fill in" as bet they could.
I see no profit in speculating on their motives. I know that they were using the work of Erasmus, who had strong Catholic leanings. Catholics like to paganize Christian observances. That may have motivated Erasmus and they might have copied.
There, NOW I DID SPECULATE, and I don't like to do so.
No. Easter is the spring festival devoted to the worship of the goddess Astoreth.
Astoreth (Northwest Semitic), a form of Ishtar (East Semitic), worshipped from the Bronze Age through classical antiquity. The name is particularly associated with her worship in the ancient Levant among the Canaanites and Phoenicians. She was also celebrated in Egypt following the importation of Levantine cults there. The name Astarte is sometimes also applied to her cults in Mesopotamian cultures like Assyria and Babylonia. Astarte (Greek: Ἀστάρτη, Astártē) is the Hellenized form of the Middle Eastern goddess
So, Easter and the German mythology are proven unrelated.
For the German myth is related to the equinox of the sun, but Easter is related to Passover by use of the moon, as it should be.
I can tell you critics are trying language experts by the way you present language as if it is designed to allow communication devoid of context.
I note that the time denoting “after Easter” occurs later in time than does, “after Passover.”
So, again, quite notably, they aren’t really the same in the context of the persecution of Peter as a Christian.
The use of Easter avoids the Jewish view because the Jews weren’t in the context, and it also reveals how rapidly Christianity distinguished itself as not being of Mosaic law and Jewish religion.
This occurs often because the Devil hates true Christianity and always tries to associate his pagan things with Christianity.
That’s why you end up with people thinking that The King James Bible is the title of the Holy Bible.
And why the Appocrypha was inserted as if it should be thought related to the Holy Bible.
And why a phony book called the Septuagint was invented.
And what happens?
Uneducated followers of heathen scholars blindly accept flies in their flavorite corrupted ointment.
No. Herod, who pandered to Jewish interests was wanting the Christians to be present when he sought to humiliate them when he was brought Peter the Apostle of Jesus of Nazareth, before him as planned.