Show me in scripture where it says "whoever is not water baptized be condemned." I can show you in scripture where it says whoever does not believe will be condemned (John 3:18)
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So what are the consequences of not doing it? Are they any worse than not separating from the world? Are they any worse than not living a holy life unto Christ?
If you do not receive water baptism is it any worse than drinking beer or smoking which were habits of the old man before salvation?
I agree you should receive water baptism after salvation but I also believe you should walk in light and not according to the old ways like you did before you were saved.
For the cause of Christ
Roger
m...,
Your position looks like swiss cheese...full of holes.
There are no holes in G-d's requirements of water baptism for eternal salvation.
I agree his act as you call it was different than ours whereas he was our all sufficient payment for sin. The assignment here on earth as you say, was it providing us a way to heaven and part of what he finished on the cross? When he said "It is finished" the sin debt was paid. So yes he did his part, I have no part in the reconciliation of my soul other than trusting that what he accomplished was sufficient.
I'll talk that as a NO, you CANNOT show me just ONE verse in the Bible that says, "whoever is not water baptized will be condemned." If water baptism was absolutely required for salvation, then God would not make so many statements in which He promises eternal salvation to those who simply BELIEVE (Luke 8:12; John 1:12; 3:15,16,18,36; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43; 13:39; 16:31; Romans 1:16; 3:26; 4:5; 10:4; 1 Corinthians 1:21; Galatians 3:22; Hebrews 10:39; 1 John 5:13 etc..).
So i have a pretty interesting question regarding the way someone should be baptized.
Do you think it is ok for a preacher to baptize using a combination of both Acts 2:38 and Matthew 28:19, so i would think it would go something like this, "I now baptize you in the name of the father, son, and holy ghost and in the name of Jesus christ" or somewhere along those lines.
Do you think it is ok for a preacher to baptize using a combination of both Acts 2:38 and Matthew 28:19, so i would think it would go something like this, "I now baptize you in the name of the father, son, and holy ghost and in the name of Jesus christ" or somewhere along those lines.
In my Fellowship confession of faith for water baptism by full immersion
is two part.
1: confessing that Jesus died for our sins and rose again to give us new life
in him
2: baptizing in the name of the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Ghost.
Further any Spirit-filled Pentecostal Christian has the right to
baptize a person as each such disciple is ordained by Christ Jesus
by the indwelling Holy Spirit.
I am not a pastor and have baptized a friend that I witnessed to
and who eventually came along to our meetings.
Ok i see what your saying, i was talking to a preacher earlier today and he mentioned that he would be baptizing using that formula. But i try to follow scripture and interpret it correctly anything and everything i say i make sure that it is biblical before i start making assumptions. So i know in Matthew 28:19 "Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost" Jesus commands us to be baptized however when Jesus spoke this passage he was preaching to all eleven disciples just before he ascended into heaven and they heard him say this. So when we jump ahead into the book of acts we don't see any of the eleven disciples using this baptizing formula but in stead they use a different one and that is in the name of Jesus Christ and we see this all throughout acts, Acts 2:38, Acts 10:48, Acts 19:5 and so on. So we end up with scriptural proof that title baptism formula is not correct, and as you mentioned it depends on your interpretation of this subject with regard to the scripture, and this is how we end up with so many denomination in Christianity like the oneness Pentecostals.
How do you interpret "born of water?" Do you assume that Jesus meant water baptism? Have you read what Jesus said in John 4:10,14; 7:37-39?
m...,
LOL...John 3:18 ...that includes ..whoever doesn't believe in baptism is condemned .....you...as an example.
John 3:5...as a courtesy. (et al)
Now, show me scripture which says...baptism is not required for salvation.
I know you can't but, humor me and try...I will extend credit to you for that.
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N...,
No...Son is Christ. No need for repeating. The Bible says..."Son".
We should always follow this rule of bible study;
...Take The Bible literally when ever possible .... if typical, figurative or symbolic language is used then we must look for a literal interpretation it intends to convey.
m...,
This may prove interesting; What would you say ..."born of water"...would mean?
*As I already explained in post #825:
If water baptism was absolutely required for salvation, then God would not make so many statements in which He promises eternal salvation to those who simply BELIEVE (Luke 8:12; John 1:12; 3:15,16,18,36; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43; 13:39; 16:31; Romans 1:16; 3:26; 4:5; 10:4; 1 Corinthians 1:21; Galatians 3:22; Hebrews 10:39; 1 John 5:13 etc..).
If water baptism is absolutely required for salvation, then why did Jesus not mention it in the following verses? (3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26). What is the ONE requirement that Jesus mentions 9 different times in each of these complete statements? BELIEVES. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics.
John 3:18 - He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who (is not water baptized? - NO) does not believe is condemned already, because he has not (been water baptized? - NO) because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
In John 3:5, Jesus said, "born of water and the Spirit" He did not say born of baptism and the Spirit. To automatically read baptism into this verse simply because it mentions "water" is unwarranted. Scripture interprets itself. Notice in John 7:38-39, "He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said, out of his heart will flow rivers of LIVING WATER. But this He spoke concerning the SPIRIT.
*Did you see that? *The Holy Spirit is the source of living water and spiritual cleansing. If "water" is arbitrarily defined as baptism, then we could just as justifiably say, "Out of his heart will flow rivers of living baptism" in John 7:38. If this sounds ridiculous, it is no more so than the idea that water baptism is the source or the means of becoming born again.
In John 4:10, Jesus said, "If you knew the gift of God, and who it is who says to you, 'Give Me a drink,' you would have asked Him, and He would have given you living water." In John 4:14, Jesus said, "but whoever drinks of the water that I shall give him will never thirst. But the water that I shall give him will become in him a fountain of water springing up into everlasting life.
*Jesus connects this living water here with everlasting life. *Living water is not water baptism. In 1 Corinthians 12:13, we also read - ..drink into one Spirit. Notice how I properly harmonize scripture with scripture before reaching my conclusion. Water baptism is the picture or symbol of the new birth, but not the means of securing it.
E
eternally-gratefull
Guest
Amen,
Here is the fact, Whether you interpret the word water to mean spirit, or physical birth, Either interpretation is more applicable and kept in context that water baptism, Especially since Jesus did not tell Nicodemus that belief plus baptism is what made us born again, and this new life lasting forever (eternal life)
e...,
Scripture can only be interpreted as water baptism...try as you will to discard the words...they are there for all to see.