It says banned underneath his name on the number 5 thread, is he really not banned?No he didn't get banned. He's still suffering from a maniacal obsession with numbers and the KJV. No digit is safe from the count.
KING JAMES VERSION BIBLE VS. MODERN ENGLISH BIBLES
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Oh, I didn't know. I guess he finally pushed it too far. I wasn't keeping up with his threads so I didn't realise.
1611 vs 1769 changes:
2 Kings 11:10 – “in the Temple” vs. “in the temple of the LORD”
Ezekiel 24:5 – “let him seethe” vs. “let them seethe”
Ezekiel 48:8 – “which they shall” vs. “which ye shall”
1 John 5:12 – “the Sonne, hath” vs. “the Son of God hath”
So, which one was perfect and inspired?
Ok starting with the first one, what is the difference the Temple and the temple of the LORD? How are those not the same temple?
Perfect translation can leave out the word "Lord"? I thought its one of main attacks on NIV etc.
It has been one of the main attacks. "EVERY WORD COUNTS!" We were told repeatedly.
I really don't have a problem with the newer translation all I am saying is they aren't inpsired are don't have the earmarks of inspiration. As I've said before I used to read the NIV. I just don't think a person will come to the same conclusions reading un-inspired books as they will reading inspired ones.
Not to mention the "number 5, 37, 7, 9 etc" in the KJV patterns
I wonder if the "pure bible search engine" James37 is using is built on 1611 or 1769 words counts.
One of them could be referring to the temple of Diana, for all we know. I mean, how will we KNOW we have the pure words of God, if it doesn't specify WHICH temple?
(sarcasm)
and.... the KJV is no more inspired than any other translation....
Bear with me I'm on a conference call while I'm doing this lol.
I've never looked for number patterns on the word "Lord" before so I don't know if a pattern exists or not. But no I don't think leaving the word Lord out changes the message in any.
Maybe you can tell me why it is diffrent.
And who decides whether the meaning is the same? 100 people = 100 opinions.
Also, if the meaning is the same, why did they update it, then?
And guess what... in NIV, KJVOnly guys will always say "the meaning is different!" and in the KJV they will alway say "the meaning is the same!" even if the kind of change is the same in both NIV and KJV.
So, now what. We need some unbiased standard.
I don't have a problem admitting when the newer translations are right, I'm glad there's some good in them.