GOD'S SABBATH AND THE REAL TRUTH OF COL 2:14-17 WHO DO WE BELIEVE GOD or MAN?

[PS]

Fulfill is in as do (execute); not do away with.
Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil Execute to the fullest). For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled (caused to be).
(Mat 5:17-18 KJV).

Starting at the beginning, if I had bought a car 100 years ago, (I'm only 73) then I would have followed the Highway Code as it was then and I would have been 'fulfilling' the law.

So do I still follow the Old Highway Code or the New, updated revised Highway Code? For to do-so is to fulfil or (execute) the law, that was 'revised' 2000 years ago, or do I still look for a man with a red flag and pretend nothing has happened in the meantime?

 

[Studyman]

You ignore that Jews in the time of Jesus including the Pharisees made a yearly sacrifice to God for their sins. Thus they acknowledged that they were not keeping the law perfectly. Jesus sacrifice made that yearly sacrifice be not needed. After 70 AD the temple was destroyed and no more sacrifices could be made.

What difference does it make what sacrifices "children of satan" make in God's name?

Proverbs 28:9 He that turneth away his ear from hearing the law, even his prayer shall be abomination.

If God considers the prayer of the Pharisees an abomination, how much greater abomination is their sacrifices?

 

[Studyman]

what studyman ( and you ) show is you have no interest in context, chronological order, and word definitions , you only want to push your doctrines.

you think you have to use 40 different verses from 5 different books to explain the context of 1st John 3, with 1st John being a letter, which is the context.

you and studyman think Acts 15 puts gentiles under the law ( it does the opposite ).

I could go on, but these are enough to prove you and him wrong.

Acts 15:19 Wherefore my sentence is, that we trouble not them, which from among the Gentiles are turned to God:

20 But that we write unto them, that they abstain from pollutions of idols, (Law of Moses)and from fornication,(Law of Moses) and from things strangled, (Law of Moses)and from blood. (Law of Moses)



21 For Moses of old time hath in every city them that preach him, being read in the synagogues every sabbath day.

It was the Apostles which directed the Gentiles into the Law of Moses, not me as you falsely preach. The Bible teaches against your religion just as it did to the Mainstream preachers of Christ's time.


Your issue is with God's Word not me.

 

[Studyman]

SDA's play the same game in salvation as every other false movement of Christendom. They profess to teach that salvation is by grace through faith, but then redefine this in a way that is contrary to the Gospel. Even though they deny this, they teach that salvation is by "grace plus law, faith plus works." Their doctrine of salvation is a subtle mixture of law and grace that is a perversion of the Gospel. (Galatians 1:6-9)

You Catholics are all the same. You create your own religion and condemn anyone who respects God's Words over your religious traditions.

That's OK though. God's Word doesn't return void. Some on here will see it.

 

[mailmandan]

You Catholics are all the same. You create your own religion and condemn anyone who respects God's Words over your religious traditions.

That's OK though. God's Word doesn't return void. Some on here will see it.

Actually, I’m not Roman Catholic and your straw man arguments are getting old.

 

[gb9]

Acts 15:19 Wherefore my sentence is, that we trouble not them, which from among the Gentiles are turned to God:

20 But that we write unto them, that they abstain from pollutions of idols, (Law of Moses)and from fornication,(Law of Moses) and from things strangled, (Law of Moses)and from blood. (Law of Moses)



21 For Moses of old time hath in every city them that preach him, being read in the synagogues every sabbath day.

It was the Apostles which directed the Gentiles into the Law of Moses, not me as you falsely preach. The Bible teaches against your religion just as it did to the Mainstream preachers of Christ's time.


Your issue is with God's Word not me.

where in the actual letter that was drafted and sent to the gentiles was the command to attend synagogues? or, like a lot of your garbage teaching, you just assume it is there, when there is no actual text to support your assumption.

 

[FlyingDove]

Rom 3:21 (A) now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested

Rom 10:4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.

Gal 5:5 For we through the Spirit wait for the hope of righteousness by faith.

Romans 5:6 While we were still weak,""at the right time""" "Christ died for the ungodly"
(NOTE: AT THE RIGHT TIME! "Christ died for the ungodly" Jew or Gentile!)

Galatians 3:19 (A) Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions, (B) till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; (C) and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.

PARSING: Gal 3:19
A) NOTE: The Law was ADDED, to expose, condemn & declare the penalty for transgressions/SIN.

B) NOTE: The law was in effect, (TIME SENSITIVE WORD >>>) ""Until""" the promised seed (Christ) should come. After that the law is to cease. (Rom 10:4)

C) NOTE: Moses was the mediator between God and the people. (Deut 5:5). The promised seed (Christ) is the meditor of a new BETTER Covenant:

Heb 8:6 But now hath he obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a """better covenant""" which was established upon """better promises"""

Christ Mediates A BETTER Covenant, Established Upon BETTER Promises.

Heb 9:15 And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance.

Better then angels, because they worship the Christ. BETTER then Moses, because He created Him. BETTER then the Aaronic priesthood, because Christ's sin sacrifice is once for all time. BETTER then the law, because Christ mediates a BETTER covenant.

Sabbatarian's,

The Mosaic law covenant, DOESN'T ANNUL, the FAITH Covenant PROMISE, God made with Abraham, 430 years before God gave Moses the Law, to include the 4th Commandment.

Gal 3:17 And this """I say, that the covenant""", that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, """which was four hundred and thirty years""" after, """cannot disannul""", that it should make the promise of none effect.

The just shall live by faith: Habakkuk 2:4, Romans 1:17 Hebrews 10:38

 

[Studyman]

Starting at the beginning, if I had bought a car 100 years ago, (I'm only 73) then I would have followed the Highway Code as it was then and I would have been 'fulfilling' the law.

So do I still follow the Old Highway Code or the New, updated revised Highway Code? For to do-so is to fulfil or (execute) the law, that was 'revised' 2000 years ago, or do I still look for a man with a red flag and pretend nothing has happened in the meantime?

We have pretty much acknowledged there is a lot of false doctrines out there, I think you have agreed with this fact.

Another false preaching is the difference between the old and new covenants.

Jer. 31:33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the LORD: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.

Where is the evidence that God's Laws that He writes on His Peoples heart, changed? Mainstream preaching will site Heb. 7.

Heb. 7:11 If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?

The Levitical Priesthood had two main functions.

#1. To administer God's Instructions. "for under it the people received the law".

#2. perform sacrificial "works" for the remission of sins as spelled out by God through Moses.


12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.

When was the "Priesthood" changed? When Jesus became our High Priest, yes? But Jesus was from the tribe of Judah, only those from the tribe of Levi were designated for this "Priesthood".

So there also had to be a change in the "Priesthood Law".


13 For he of whom these things are spoken pertaineth to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar.

14 For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood.

So God's Instructions didn't change according to the Scriptures, the "Priesthood" changed. So now it isn't the Levites or Pharisees to carry out the two primary purposes of this Priesthood, it is Jesus our High Priest.

#1. I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts;

No more going to the Scribes to hear God's Word, we all have God's Word in our homes and in our minds. He administers God's Instructions, not the Levite.

#2. "for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more."

No more Levitical Priesthood "works of the Law" for remission of sins. Jesus does this with His own blood. No more going to find a Levite to perform "Deeds" or "Works" of the Levitical Priesthood for remission of sins.

Paul points this out several times.

Rom. 3:27 Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith.

28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.


It isn't the Levitical Priesthood that Jesus places in our minds, it is God's universal Laws that Abraham kept. He was justified "Apart" from this "law of works".

We are not judged by the Levitical Priesthood "works of the Law", but by the Law of Faith that Abraham kept. Paul explains this as well.

Rom. 2:11 For there is no respect of persons with God.
12 For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;
13 (For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.

Not the "Law of Works" but the Law of Faith.

Many preachers, who come in Christ's Name, preach that there is no difference between the "Law of Works' and the "Law of Faith". That when Paul mentions "Works of the Law" he is talking about ALL of God's Instructions. This is another insidious lie that has been accepted by "many".

 

[Studyman]

where in the actual letter that was drafted and sent to the gentiles was the command to attend synagogues? or, like a lot of your garbage teaching, you just assume it is there, when there is no actual text to support your assumption.

Acts 15:19 Wherefore my sentence is, that we trouble not them, which from among the Gentiles are turned to God:

20 But that we write unto them, that they abstain from pollutions of idols, (Law of Moses)and from fornication,(Law of Moses) and from things strangled, (Law of Moses)and from blood. (Law of Moses)

21 For Moses of old time hath in every city them that preach him, being read in the synagogues every sabbath day.


James was just following the instructions Jesus gave for them.

Matt. 23:1 Then spake Jesus to the multitude, and to his disciples,
2 Saying, The scribes and the Pharisees sit in Moses' seat:

3 All therefore whatsoever they bid you observe, that observe and do; but do not ye after their works: for they say, and do not.

Of course James sent the New Gentile Converts to hear God's Word like Jesus instructed. Of course James identified some lifestyle practices the Gentile would have to change for Jesus to "Know them".

Like I said, you problem is with God and His Word, not me.

 

[Studyman]

Actually, I’m not Roman Catholic and your straw man arguments are getting old.

And I'm not SDA or Hebrew Roots as I have told you several times. But you continue to push this falsehood anyway.

 

[Endoscopy]

Funny how you were just complaining at someone for not being nice. Then insulted them. And now are insulting someone else.
Long posts Do get read on here, just by fewer people. But still get read.
Really all I've seen of you is contradiction. Speaks poorly of your character.

I get irritated with long attacks on what was a simple statement about the origin of a concept. The person went overboard with trying to prove how Christianity has been corrupted since the early days. I did research to find where the concept of Sunday came from and shared that on the board. A long diatribe in response was uncalled for.

 

[Endoscopy]

Actually, I’m not Roman Catholic and your straw man arguments are getting old.

I question whether Studyman is a sheep or wolf. He prefers the attack mode.

 

[Endoscopy]

We have pretty much acknowledged there is a lot of false doctrines out there, I think you have agreed with this fact.

Another false preaching is the difference between the old and new covenants.

Jer. 31:33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the LORD: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.

Where is the evidence that God's Laws that He writes on His Peoples heart, changed? Mainstream preaching will site Heb. 7.

Heb. 7:11 If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?

The Levitical Priesthood had two main functions.

#1. To administer God's Instructions. "for under it the people received the law".

#2. perform sacrificial "works" for the remission of sins as spelled out by God through Moses.


12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.

When was the "Priesthood" changed? When Jesus became our High Priest, yes? But Jesus was from the tribe of Judah, only those from the tribe of Levi were designated for this "Priesthood".

So there also had to be a change in the "Priesthood Law".


13 For he of whom these things are spoken pertaineth to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar.

14 For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood.

So God's Instructions didn't change according to the Scriptures, the "Priesthood" changed. So now it isn't the Levites or Pharisees to carry out the two primary purposes of this Priesthood, it is Jesus our High Priest.

#1. I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts;

No more going to the Scribes to hear God's Word, we all have God's Word in our homes and in our minds. He administers God's Instructions, not the Levite.

#2. "for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more."

No more Levitical Priesthood "works of the Law" for remission of sins. Jesus does this with His own blood. No more going to find a Levite to perform "Deeds" or "Works" of the Levitical Priesthood for remission of sins.

Paul points this out several times.

Rom. 3:27 Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith.

28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.


It isn't the Levitical Priesthood that Jesus places in our minds, it is God's universal Laws that Abraham kept. He was justified "Apart" from this "law of works".

We are not judged by the Levitical Priesthood "works of the Law", but by the Law of Faith that Abraham kept. Paul explains this as well.

Rom. 2:11 For there is no respect of persons with God.
12 For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;
13 (For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.

Not the "Law of Works" but the Law of Faith.

Many preachers, who come in Christ's Name, preach that there is no difference between the "Law of Works' and the "Law of Faith". That when Paul mentions "Works of the Law" he is talking about ALL of God's Instructions. This is another insidious lie that has been accepted by "many".

The more you post the more you sound wolfish.

 

[Studyman]

=FlyingDove;3449087]Rom 3:21

(A) now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested

What Law? the Law of works Added to the Laws Abraham kept, or the Law of Faith that Abraham kept?

Rom 10:4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.

He is truly the intend of the Law for righteousness. We need look no further on how to walk. As it is written;

"6 He that saith he abideth in him ought himself also so to walk, even as he walked."

And again;

Heb. 12:1 Wherefore seeing we also are compassed about with so great a cloud of witnesses, let us lay aside every weight, and the sin which doth so easily beset us, and let us run with patience the race that is set before us,
2 Looking unto Jesus the author and finisher of our faith; who for the joy that was set before him endured the cross, despising the shame, and is set down at the right hand of the throne of God.

Gal 5:5 For we through the Spirit wait for the hope of righteousness by faith.

Romans 5:6 While we were still weak,""at the right time""" "Christ died for the ungodly"
(NOTE: AT THE RIGHT TIME! "Christ died for the ungodly" Jew or Gentile!)

Of course Christ died for the ungodly, why would He have to sacrifice for someone who didn't have sin. This isn't an excuse to reject much of His Instructions though.

Galatians 3:19 (A) Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions, (B) till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; (C) and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.

The scripture says the "Law" was added to an existing law that was being transgressed. This is speaking about the Levitical Priesthood which was "ADDED" until the Seed should come. The preaching that this is speaking to ALL of God's Instructions is false, though widespread. We know Abraham had god's Laws, but we also know he didn't have the Levitical Priesthood because Levi wasn't even born yet. Abraham was justified "Apart" from this Law. Not God's universal Law given to all mankind.

Gen. 26:4 And I will make thy seed to multiply as the stars of heaven, and will give unto thy seed all these countries; and in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed;
5 Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.

PARSING: Gal 3:19
A) NOTE: The Law was ADDED, to expose, condemn & declare the penalty for transgressions/SIN.

B) NOTE: The law was in effect, (TIME SENSITIVE WORD >>>) ""Until""" the promised seed (Christ) should come. After that the law is to cease. (Rom 10:4)

The "ADDED" Levitical Priesthood Law is to cease, actually, it is still being observed, it has just been changed.


Heb. 7:11 If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?

12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.

13 For he of whom these things are spoken pertaineth to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar.
14 For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood.

It wasn't God's Instructions that "ceased", it was the ADDED "Levitical Priesthood" that was changed.

The New covenant deals with 2 things.

#1. How God's Instructions are administered. "No more going to Levite Priests to hear God's Word, Jesus write His Laws on our hearts.

#2. No more sacrificial "Works of the Law" as prescribed by the Levitical Priesthood, Jesus own blood cleanses our sins.

God's Laws have not been changed by Jesus, only by the "Many" who come in His Name. He warns of these "many" in Matt. 24.

C) NOTE: Moses was the mediator between God and the people. (Deut 5:5). The promised seed (Christ) is the meditor of a new BETTER Covenant:

Heb 8:6 But now hath he obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a """better covenant""" which was established upon """better promises"""

Absolutely.

Christ Mediates A BETTER Covenant, Established Upon BETTER Promises.

Absolutely.

Heb 9:15 And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance.

Better then angels, because they worship the Christ. BETTER then Moses, because He created Him. BETTER then the Aaronic priesthood, because Christ's sin sacrifice is once for all time. BETTER then the law, because Christ mediates a BETTER covenant.

Better than the first "Priesthood", absolutely.

Sabbatarian's,

The Mosaic law covenant, DOESN'T ANNUL, the FAITH Covenant PROMISE, God made with Abraham, 430 years before God gave Moses the Law, to include the 4th Commandment.

Gal 3:17 And this """I say, that the covenant""", that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, """which was four hundred and thirty years""" after, """cannot disannul""", that it should make the promise of none effect.

That is right. The "ADDED" Levitical Priesthood with it's ceremonial, sacrificial "works of the Law" does not ANUL the promise God made with Abraham. (Gen. 26)

The just shall live by faith: Habakkuk 2:4, Romans 1:17 Hebrews 10:38

Abraham trusted in God enough to follow His Instructions as it is written. That this was accounted unto him as Faith, and Righteousness. He was justified by "Faith", not by the "Works of the old priesthood Law that wasn't "ADDED" until 430 years later."

 

[gb9]

I question whether Studyman is a sheep or wolf. He prefers the attack mode.

he prefers assumptions and conspiracy theories, and plucking verses out of context, and writing a LOT of personal opinion commentary.

 

[Studyman]

The more you post the more you sound wolfish.

Hard to argue with the Sword of the Lord.

 

[gb9]

Acts 15:19 Wherefore my sentence is, that we trouble not them, which from among the Gentiles are turned to God:

20 But that we write unto them, that they abstain from pollutions of idols, (Law of Moses)and from fornication,(Law of Moses) and from things strangled, (Law of Moses)and from blood. (Law of Moses)

21 For Moses of old time hath in every city them that preach him, being read in the synagogues every sabbath day.


James was just following the instructions Jesus gave for them.

Matt. 23:1 Then spake Jesus to the multitude, and to his disciples,
2 Saying, The scribes and the Pharisees sit in Moses' seat:

3 All therefore whatsoever they bid you observe, that observe and do; but do not ye after their works: for they say, and do not.

Of course James sent the New Gentile Converts to hear God's Word like Jesus instructed. Of course James identified some lifestyle practices the Gentile would have to change for Jesus to "Know them".

Like I said, you problem is with God and His Word, not me.

James said that in the meeting , to jewish men. there is no inclusion of instruction to gentiles to start attending synagogues in the letter that was drafted and sent to the gentiles. you are quoting v. 21, the actual letter is v.23-29, with no mention of synagogue.

guess they forgot to put that in the letter, and just told them in person, and then never said they told them. that makes sense right?

 

[Studyman]

James said that in the meeting , to jewish men. there is no inclusion of instruction to gentiles to start attending synagogues in the letter that was drafted and sent to the gentiles. you are quoting v. 21, the actual letter is v.23-29, with no mention of synagogue.

guess they forgot to put that in the letter, and just told them in person, and then never said they told them. that makes sense right?

It's right there in your Bible. You can't accept it because of your religious traditions. I don't have any religious franchise doctrines to defend so it's easier for me to accept what is written.

 

[gb9]

It's right there in your Bible. You can't accept it because of your religious traditions. I don't have any religious franchise doctrines to defend so it's easier for me to accept what is written.

yes it is right there. James said what he said in the meeting, but that was NOT recorded in the letter that was sent to the gentiles.

there is no religious doectrines needed to understand that v. 21 came before v. 23-29, which is the actual letter, where what was said in v. 21 is not recorded in the actual letter.

I do not have to defend that 21 comes before 23-29, that is a reality.

 

[Endoscopy]

he prefers assumptions and conspiracy theories, and plucking verses out of context, and writing a LOT of personal opinion commentary.

That is why I wonder about hin.