The King James Bible

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
king james version is the only version worth reading and studying. everyone should learn to speak as king james did, we should do away with other languages, who cares about spanish russian chinese, cos all should speak as king jimmy spoke.am i right or am i right?

There are many other reliable versions as well. To answer your question I would say that you're probably wrong.
 
The KJV itself testifies in several places (including Genesis 1) that there is more than one "heaven", so you are incorrect on that.
The Holy Bible reveals in the narrative that there was one heaven, which is not yet capitalized in the first verse. Then that heaven was divided in such manner that a new heaven was named Heaven, and two others; one wherein the sun, moon and stars are, and one wherein birds fly.
Calling the Hebrew "false" is sheer ignorance, arrogance, and closed-mindedness.
You either; are referring to a corrupt text, or to corrupt scholarship.
I know its corrupt because it is contradictory to the narrative.
 
Last edited:
Easter is a Babylonian and Persian fertility worship ritual. A spring rite of the ancients.
I can tell you about it over a drink at the pub if you like. Without google. Ancient religions were my higher education subject.
Easter is not pagan it is Christian.
 
I know its corrupt because it is contradictory to the narrative.

So, answer this imperfection in the KJV:

----

"For the name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles through you, as it is written."
R 2:24 KJV

"and my name continually every day is blasphemed."
Is 52:6 KJV

----

Explain to me, why did the KJV OT dropped out the meaning (that Gentiles blaspheme the name of God because of Jews).
 
You yourself just said that God divided the heaven into three parts.. (with no scriptural reference, of course)... is that not "creating" the heavens?
It is all found in plain English in the first chapter of the Holy Bible.
But the fake bibles contradict their own narratives.
So, since we know there are at least three heavens, which translation is more accurate... that he created "heaven and earth", or "heavens and earth" ?
The one that reads...
In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth is false and contradicts its own narrative.

This should lead to confusion for you KJVO nit-pickers when they read about Paul and the third heaven, should it not?
Not.

This example is EXACTLY what you nit pickers do when trying to discredit any other translation.... "the scriptures contradict themselves!!"[/quotepA contradiction proves a lie has been translated into the text. If you accept lies then confusion and doubts with be the result.
 
The Holy Bible reveals in the narrative that there was one heaven, which is not yet capitalized in the first verse. Then that heaven was divided in such manner that a new heaven was named Heaven, and two others; one wherein the sun, moon and stars are, and one wherein birds fly.

This has been refuted already. You have been unable to demonstrate where in the text of Genesis 1 the heavens are divided. Your position is wrong.

You either; are referring to a corrupt text, or to corrupt scholarship.
I know its corrupt because it is contradictory to the narrative.

You have already admitted that you don't know Hebrew; therefore, your commentary is irrelevant.
 
So, answer this imperfection in the KJV:

----

"For the name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles through you, as it is written."
R 2:24 KJV

"and my name continually every day is blasphemed."
Is 52:6 KJV

----

Explain to me, why did the KJV OT dropped out the meaning (that Gentiles blaspheme the name of God because of Jews).
Ezekiel 36:23.
 
This has been refuted already. You have been unable to demonstrate where in the text of Genesis 1 the heavens are divided. Your position is wrong.
It has been shown.
You have already admitted that you don't know Hebrew; therefore, your commentary is irrelevant.
The Holy Bible is in plain English without corruption in it.
The fake bibles are corrupt as I can always show by use of the Holy Bible.
 
Revelation ended with the death of the last Apostle and they did not write anything in English so the KJV is the work of fallible human beings and not the inerrant Word of God.
 
Ezekiel 36:23 shows that it is written, that the heathen blaspheme God because the nation of Israel profane God's holy name as Paul said.

Eh, OK, I will find some case that is obviously only on one place in the OT.
 
The KJVO crowd don't answer questions (with a few articulate exceptions) they are too busy listening to their own noise; probably convinced it is music.