The King James Bible

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Joseppi said:
Thanks for answering boldly.
You are correct.
But many of the phony bibles add the snake like "s" to the first verse.

I chose this verse because the adding of the "s" is contradicted in the phony bibles themselves.
That isb not only are the phony bibles in contradiction of the Holy Bibleb but they also contradict themselves and each other.

And, it matters because once men read the phony bibles, then in time they note the errors and blatant lies and contradictions, and before long they are in doubt.
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That does not prove that the KJV is better in everything else or even perfect.
 
Joseppi said:
Thanks for answering boldly.
You are correct.
But many of the phony bibles add the snake like "s" to the first verse.

I chose this verse because the adding of the "s" is contradicted in the phony bibles themselves.
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On what evidential basis do you consider the "s" on "heavens" to be incorrect? The Hebrew word is plural.
 
Dino246 said:
Your childish comment is quite unnecessary, and merely demonstrates your character. Step up and provide some real evidence to support your assertion, or admit that you have none. Inventing unbiblical statements is easy; quoting someone who has made an unbiblical statement seems to be more of a challenge for you.
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I presented phony bible junk.
Now some posters claim the phony bibles are good books but they aren't.
I call them lollipop versions because they were written for specific kinds of readers that want to pick and choose what they call truth.
 
Joseppi said:
It contradicts the scripture that says that God created the heavens later in chapter.
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If you are based on such small details as plural vs singular, my question is:

Why does the KJV changes the OT texts so much that they divert from the NT quotations in even whole sentences?
 
hey i made a mistake here, it's not equivalently ~ $2000 it's closer to $15,000-$20,000 in today's American dollars

so Joseppi,

i asked this last night but i hadn't gotten an answer to it yet. perhaps you could give your opinion on the question?

is "two hundred pennyworth" correct and perfect for all time?
should it be "20,000 dollars" or should it be as it literally is in the Greek, 200 denarii ?
because $2 seems like a weird thing for Phillip to say, to me.

thanks


posthuman said:

i got kind of a weird question, maybe..

Philip answered him, Two hundred pennyworth of bread is not sufficient for them, that every one of them may take a little.
(John 6:7 KJV)​

$2 worth of bread is certainly not going to feed 5,000 people!

adjusting for inflation and currency conversion, my back-of-the-envelope estimate is that we're talking about $1500 more or less in 2018 USD.

when i read this in John 6 right now, tonight, this year, should i be thinking that Phillip is talking about $2 worth of bread or should i be thinking that Phillip is talking about closer to $2,000 worth of bread?

do i take the KJV to be word-for-word 100% perfect for as long as there is a language called "English" or do i allow that language - individual words - were not just changed at Babel but continue to change over time? are "two hundred" and "pennyworth" still the perfect words to be written in John 6:7 today? will they be 100 years from now? should it just say whatever the actual Greek monetary term is, in Greek, and let the reader or a marginal note ((lol not a footnote!!)) be directed to do the currency and time period conversion for themselves?

do i imagine Phillip commenting about not enough money to buy a large box of french fries from mcdonald's[SUP]®[/SUP] or the budget of a buffet for hundreds?
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trofimus said:
Every Bible can be used for that. And not only Bible. The Holy Spirit inside a person is what makes it alive.
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The fake bibles use truth for appearances sake.
Look, if you desire to defend bibles you like that is your right.
I'm only attempting to open your understanding.
The word of God is a lamp unto our feet.
The word of God is not many lamps, for as Jesus said, Let your eye be single.
 
posthuman said:
hey i made a mistake here, it's not equivalently ~ $2000 it's closer to $15,000-$20,000 in today's American dollars

so Joseppi,

i asked this last night but i hadn't gotten an answer to it yet. perhaps you could give your opinion on the question?

is "two hundred pennyworth" correct and perfect for all time?
should it be "20,000 dollars" or should it be as it literally is in the Greek, 200 denarii ?
because $2 seems like a weird thing for Phillip to say, to me.

thanks
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It is an analogy.
And what Phillip mean't I suspect that you well understand.
Which proves the analogy effective.
 
The first lie I presented is from the NIV that teaches that there are men of goodwill. It is found in the birth of Jesus narrative.
 
Joseppi said:
It is an analogy.
And what Phillip mean't I suspect that you well understand.
Which proves the analogy effective.
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what do you mean "it's an analogy" ?

Phillip remarked that a certain, definite amount of money relevant to the present time and culture in which he made the remark would not be enough to buy food for all the people there.

how is that an analogy? they were real people, he was talking about real food, and he mentioned a real amount of money.

what i'm asking is whether the amount of money he mentioned is accurately & perfectly represented by "$2" as the KJV reads . . ?

i only understand it in terms of assuming the KJV is wrong, finding what the Greek says, finding out how much a denarii was roughly worth 2,000 years ago in Israel, and making a currency conversion and adjusting for 2,000 years of inflation.
 
Joseppi said:
It is in the same first chapter.
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where exactly are you referring to?

there are a lot of words in that chapter. a number of words probably related in some weird way to the number 37. but that's another thread.

but you could just give as a verse number, or quote, and there wouldn't be needless confusion about what you're saying :)
 
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