Not By Works

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Jun 5, 2017
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Which Law are gentiles under?
To be "Under the Law" means to be convicted of sin, because sin is the transgression of God's Law.

Rom 3:19
Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty2 before God.
 
Jun 5, 2017
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There is no "spiritual Israel".....
Then there is no New Covenant for you...

Heb 8:10-12,

For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts:5 and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people: And they shall not teach every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest. For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more.
 
U

UnderGrace

Guest
I will pray! ;)


God's judgment is according to His truth. What is His Truth? Jesus Christ is the truth. He said love fulfills all the law and all the prophets. If you are under the grace of God and covered (via faith) by the shedding of His Son's righteous blood, there is no condemnation. But if you are not covered by this grace, you are condemned (Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because they have not believed in the name of God's one and only Son. John 3:18). Condemned by what? Is God's standard not the law? Do not lie, do not cheat, do not steal, do not covet etc. Love does no harm to others. Love does not bear false witness, commit adultery, steal, covet etc... Love puts God first.

Scripture is clear: laws are for the lawless (1 Tim 1:9 We also know that the law is made not for the righteous but for lawbreakers and rebels, the ungodly and sinful, the unholy and irreligious, for those who kill their fathers or mothers, for murderers, for the sexually immoral, for those practicing homosexuality, for slave traders and liars and perjurers--and for whatever else is contrary to the sound doctrine
). By what other standard would God judge? I do not mean the 613 mitzvah. Men are without excuse for rejecting God (Romans one). Are not the Noahide laws for all humanity? No there is no chapter and verse for this. But there are these:

James 2:10 ESV
For whoever keeps the whole law but fails in
one point has become accountable for all of it.

Does this not mean that people are judged by the law if they live by the law, which is for the lawless, meaning those not covered by the shed righteous blood of Jesus Christ?

Hebrews 9:27 ESV
And just as it is appointed for man to die once, and after that comes judgment,

By what other standard would you suppose God uses to judge mankind?
I mean on judgment day, when all stand before Him, to pass either into
life ever after, or into the eternal punishment of the second death.

2 Peter 3:2-7
Above all, you must understand that in the last days scoffers will come, scoffing and following their own evil desires. 4 They will say, “Where is this ‘coming’ he promised? Ever since our ancestors died, everything goes on as it has since the beginning of creation.”5 But they deliberately forget that long ago by God’s word the heavens came into being and the earth was formed out of water and by water. 6 By these waters also the world of that time was deluged and destroyed. 7 By the same word the present heavens and earth are reserved for fire, being kept for the day of judgment and destruction of the ungodly.

Again I ask, by what other standard would God use to judge the ungodly?
(Nor am I angry, I am seriously asking, is there some other standard?)

Matthew 12:36-37 (men will be judged according to their words); Matthew 16:27 (every man will be rewarded according to his works); Romans 12:19 (God will repay men for the evil they have done); 2 Timothy 4:14 (God will reward this evil man according to his works); Revelation 18:4-6, Judges 1:7 ("as I have done, so God hath requited me"); 2 Samuel 3:39; Psalm 28:4; Psalm 62:12; Psalm 94:1-2; Proverbs 22:12; and Jeremiah 17:10.

Revelation 20:12
And I saw the dead, great and small, standing before the throne, and books were opened. Then another book was opened, which is the book of life. And the dead were judged by what was written in the books, according to what they had done.

John 12:48 ESV
The one who rejects me and does not receive my words has a judge;
the word that I have spoken will judge him on the last day.

Romans 2:16 ESV
On that day when, according to my gospel, God
judges the secrets of men by Christ Jesus.

Acts 17:31
ESV
Because he has fixed a day on which he will judge the world
in righteousness by a man whom he has appointed; and of this
he has given assurance to all by raising him (Jesus) from the dead.

Romans 13:2
ESV
Therefore whoever resists the authorities resists what God
has appointed, and those who resist will incur judgment.

1 Peter 4:17-19 ESV
For it is time for judgment to begin at the household of God;
and if it begins with us, what will be the outcome for those who
do not obey the gospel of God? And “If the righteous is scarcely
saved, what will become of the ungodly and the sinner?”

Therefore let those who suffer according to God's will
entrust their souls to a faithful Creator while doing good.

Psalm 1:5-6 ESV
Therefore the wicked will not stand in the judgment, nor
sinners in the congregation of the righteous; for the Lord
knows the way of the righteous, but the way of the wicked will perish.

Have I left anything out? Probably :)

I am sorry for my tardy response. Please pray for me to get my work done here, for I am having an inspection tomorrow and need to do quite a bit more to prepare for it.
 

Cee

Senior Member
May 14, 2010
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473
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Thank you Cee, a voice of truth, I was looking for someone to show this...thanks....

Keep me honest but ,in Genesis 14 Abram is called a "hebrew", How is Abram and later Abraham a gentile?
No problem. Great question once again.

Here's my answer:

The reason why I said he was a "Gentile" is because Abraham wasn't under the Law. It was given to Moses. This was a different covenant given to Israel.

Here's my deeper thoughts on this:

Hebrews are descendants of Abraham, but Jews are given a different classification.

Romans 2:28For no one is a Jew who is merely one outwardly, nor is circumcision outward and physical. 29But a Jew is one inwardly, and circumcision is a matter of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the letter. His praise is not from man but from God.

The reason why I brought this up in the first place was because I was under the impression you were looking into the original covenant that was given to Abraham.

What's actually quite intriguing is that one could make the case the "New Covenant" is actually the "Older Covenant" that was given to Abraham before the Law was given to Moses.

The promise was given to Abraham and through Abraham his ONE offspring, which is Christ. We are in Christ, thus the promises are yes and amen for us in Him.

Galatians 3:15To give a human example, brothers: even with a man-made covenant, no one annuls it or adds to it once it has been ratified. 16Now the promises were made to Abraham and to his offspring. It does not say, “And to offsprings,” referring to many, but referring to one, “And to your offspring,” who is Christ.

17
This is what I mean: the law, which came 430 years afterward, does not annul a covenant previously ratified by God, so as to make the promise void. 18For if the inheritance comes by the law, it no longer comes by promise; but God gave it to Abraham by a promise.

So why did the Law come later if it didn't change or annual the covenant with Abraham? Because the only was to have access to the covenant with Abraham was through Christ. He is THE Offspring.

19Why then the law? It was added because of transgressions, until the offspring should come to whom the promise had been made, and it was put in place through angels by an intermediary.

I hope this answers your question, but just to summarize. Abraham is a Hebrew (by blood), but a Gentile because he was never under the law. And we Gentiles who were not given the Law through Moses come in through the promise of Abraham. So the Law written on stones was never given to us. I already addressed in my previous post how the Law still affects us Gentiles (those without law) because without Christ we are a law unto ourselves. And by this all without Christ will be judged by God. And as Paul says none are righteous, but Him.
 
May 12, 2017
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Well I am not really sure what you mean, but I do believe historically speaking and according to some schools of thought in American history the Hebrew laws did impact the development of civil laws. (Now I am not American, and I was taught in Canada so maybe this is just American bias ) In the end it has nothing to so with the discussion. :D:D


Their law was based on the
Ten Commandments and other sacred writings, which today we find in the Hebrew Bible. In developing their law, they sometimes borrowed legal concepts from other civilizations as well as passing on their own ideas. The Jewish law that developed influenced Roman law, English law, and our own Declaration of Independence and Constitution.

BRIA 16 4 a The Hebrews and the Foundation of Western Law - Constitutional Rights Foundation
All good undergrace....
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
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Your summary: Abraham is a Hebrew (by blood), but a Gentile because he was never under the law. And we Gentiles who were not given the Law through Moses come in through the promise of Abraham. So the Law written on stones was never given to us. I already addressed in my previous post how the Law still affects us Gentiles (those without law) because without Christ we are a law unto ourselves. And by this all without Christ will be judged by God. And as Paul says none are righteous, but Him.
Abraham's faith was counted as righteousness. By what standard
are the unrighteous to be judged if not the law? Serious question :)
 
May 12, 2017
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We are to follow Jesus by Faith. God's Law brings us to him (Gal 3:24)
Gal 3.24-
[SUP]24 [/SUP]Therefore the Law has become our tutor to lead us to Christ, so that we may be justified by faith.

But drats....Vs 25 shows us that we do not need the law....

[SUP]25 [/SUP]But now that faith has come, we are no longer under a tutor.
 
May 12, 2017
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To be "Under the Law" means to be convicted of sin, because sin is the transgression of God's Law.

Rom 3:19
Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty2 before God.
your playing semantics and our discussions are over.....you are also proof texting to push a false teaching...
 
Jun 5, 2017
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Gal 3.24-
[SUP]24 [/SUP]Therefore the Law has become our tutor to lead us to Christ, so that we may be justified by faith.

But drats....Vs 25 shows us that we do not need the law....

[SUP]25 [/SUP]But now that faith has come, we are no longer under a tutor.
Absolutely, who is not agreeing with that? But if you fall into sin again your back where you stated :rolleyes:
 
Jun 5, 2017
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your playing semantics and our discussions are over.....you are also proof texting to push a false teaching...
Not at all. I am only backing up what I say with God's Word:rolleyes: What is wring with that? It actually does the opposite it shows I am not pushing false teachings
 
May 12, 2017
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No problem. Great question once again.

Here's my answer:

The reason why I said he was a "Gentile" is because Abraham wasn't under the Law. It was given to Moses. This was a different covenant given to Israel.

Here's my deeper thoughts on this:

Hebrews are descendants of Abraham, but Jews are given a different classification.

Romans 2:28For no one is a Jew who is merely one outwardly, nor is circumcision outward and physical. 29But a Jew is one inwardly, and circumcision is a matter of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the letter. His praise is not from man but from God.

The reason why I brought this up in the first place was because I was under the impression you were looking into the original covenant that was given to Abraham.

What's actually quite intriguing is that one could make the case the "New Covenant" is actually the "Older Covenant" that was given to Abraham before the Law was given to Moses.

The promise was given to Abraham and through Abraham his ONE offspring, which is Christ. We are in Christ, thus the promises are yes and amen for us in Him.

Galatians 3:15To give a human example, brothers: even with a man-made covenant, no one annuls it or adds to it once it has been ratified. 16Now the promises were made to Abraham and to his offspring. It does not say, “And to offsprings,” referring to many, but referring to one, “And to your offspring,” who is Christ.

17
This is what I mean: the law, which came 430 years afterward, does not annul a covenant previously ratified by God, so as to make the promise void. 18For if the inheritance comes by the law, it no longer comes by promise; but God gave it to Abraham by a promise.

So why did the Law come later if it didn't change or annual the covenant with Abraham? Because the only was to have access to the covenant with Abraham was through Christ. He is THE Offspring.

19Why then the law? It was added because of transgressions, until the offspring should come to whom the promise had been made, and it was put in place through angels by an intermediary.

I hope this answers your question, but just to summarize. Abraham is a Hebrew (by blood), but a Gentile because he was never under the law. And we Gentiles who were not given the Law through Moses come in through the promise of Abraham. So the Law written on stones was never given to us. I already addressed in my previous post how the Law still affects us Gentiles (those without law) because without Christ we are a law unto ourselves. And by this all without Christ will be judged by God. And as Paul says none are righteous, but Him.
Ok, thanks again, I was seeing where you were going...and I see you also have a solid understanding of the 8 Bible covenants as well....
 
S

Sully

Guest
Not true.
There are places grace cannot go. And if you try to bend it to go there you break it.
Lol, i've been to those places and all there was was grace. Like a beacon of light to lead me back to truth. You can't bend grace, what does that even mean. Oh I guess if you don't experience grace you'll use your pseudo intellect to try and figure out what it is. Like a cow looking at a new gate, aka bent perception...
 
U

UnderGrace

Guest


I had to come to the same conclusion.:(

Same words different meanings.
Different meanings same words.
On occasion same words same meaning...but in the end a works based non-gospel



your playing semantics and our discussions are over.....you are also proof texting to push a false teaching...
 

Cee

Senior Member
May 14, 2010
2,169
473
83
Abraham's faith was counted as righteousness. By what standard
are the unrighteous to be judged if not the law? Serious question :)
Hi Magenta!

I'd love give you my thoughts, but I am not sure I understand your question?

But, my first thoughts are in John 16:

7Nevertheless, I tell you the truth: it is to your advantage that I go away, for if I do not go away, the Helper will not come to you. But if I go, I will send him to you. 8And when he comes, he will convict the world concerning sin and righteousness and judgment: 9concerning sin, because they do not believe in me;

Unbelievers are judged for not believing in Christ. Paul also says they are without excuse because all of creation expresses the existence of our Creator, but even if they say they have no law to follow, their actions show the law is written on their heart. And so they are left without excuse.

Did I answer your question? P.S. Nice to see you again. :)
 
U

UnderGrace

Guest
Sully so true!!! Amen!

It is just like Jesus told Nicodemus

[SUP]12 [/SUP]I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?
John 3:12



Lol, i've been to those places and all there was was grace. Like a beacon of light to lead me back to truth. You can't bend grace, what does that even mean. Oh I guess if you don't experience grace you'll use your pseudo intellect to try and figure out what it is. Like a cow looking at a new gate, aka bent perception...
 
S

Sully

Guest
Sully so true!!! Amen!

It is just like Jesus told Nicodemus

[SUP]12 [/SUP]I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?
John 3:12
Right on! We are living in a world where Christians have to defend the basic concept of "common" sense grace? The entire purpose of our faith, the only hope we have in Christ Jesus? Queue the Twilight Zone music. Thank you UnderGrace.