Son's of God Genesis 6:1-8

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oldhermit

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Jul 28, 2012
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lol argument very weak :) your and ye are expressing two different types. Jesus was referring to beings other than God being described as gods, not to men. The word of God came to angels as well as men.
Yawn. Ignore..........
 
J

jaybird88

Guest
How does this verse say they were not angels?
it doesnt. its a divine council in the heavens, man is not part of the heavens. they were judged to die like men. sons of the Most High do not die.

Luke 20:36
for they cannot die anymore, because they are equal to angels and are sons of God, being sons of the resurrection.
 
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Paul warns us in Colossians 2:18 not to be deceived by those who worship angels or to worship angels.

This goes hand in hand with Gen 6 & Jude for those willing to see it.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
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Paul warns us in Colossians 2:18 not to be deceived by those who worship angels or to worship angels.

This goes hand in hand with Gen 6 & Jude for those willing to see it.
How........(10 characters)?
 
J

jaybird88

Guest
34Jesus answered them, “Has it not been written in your Law, ‘I SAID, YOU ARE GODS’? 35“If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken),"
was this Jesus saying He was just a man or Jesus saying His true being was in the heavens among the gods/sons of the Most High, a being that did not die.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
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Good. This is absolutely correct. The giants were already in the land and these 'sons of God' (regardless of who you take this to be) took daughters of THESE and the line of the Nephilim continued. The presence of the 'sons of God' were not causal to the appearance of the Nephilim, they were incidental to it.
Hm, no, I meant it differently. I meant that the giants were the children of the sons of God and women. I.E. that in those times, when they were taking those women... you know, in that era or age or how to say it.

But I admit my orientation in the English tenses is not so perfect, so I will pass on this one, probably... Let somebody who is a native English speaker explain it :) Its quite difficult for me.

I know. I keep seeing that but no one has provided the Greek text from which they claim to have gotten this quote. But, I can assure you, this translation does not come from any copy of the byzantine text I have ever seen.
Which quote, which translation? I am lost a little

Ok. Here is the point I want you to consider.
The passages in Job are used to argue that 'sons of God' can only refer to fallen angels. Jude 6-7 is then tortured to make it say that the sin of those fallen angels was that of sexual immorality. THEN they claim that because 'sons of God' in Job 1 & 2 refers to angels this also means that 'sons of God' in Gen 6 must also refer to angels. The argument is then made that the sons of Seth cannot be the 'sons of God' because they were evil. If the sons of Seth cannot be 'sons of God' because they were evil, then by what possible rule of interpretation does not claim that fallen angels are 'sons of God' EVEN THOUGH they were evil.
Because if it was about humans, "the sons of God" would be a spiritual meaning. Therefore they would have to be godly, not wicked.
If they were angels, "the sons of God" would be a "higher being" meaning. Therefore not dependent on their spiritual status (godly or ungodly).

======

I really not not know what this has to do with Gen 6.
If the angels theory is right, demons are the giants.

If the Sethite theory is right, where are demons from? Who are they?
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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Good. This is absolutely correct. The giants were already in the land and these 'sons of God' (regardless of who you take this to be) took daughters of THESE and the line of the Nephilim continued. The presence of the 'sons of God' were not causal to the appearance of the Nephilim, they were incidental to it.
The Nephilim were the sons of God. If not, why are they mentioned at all.


Ok. Here is the point I want you to consider.
The passages in Job are used to argue that 'sons of God' can only refer to fallen angels. Jude 6-7 is then tortured to make it say that the sin of those fallen angels was that of sexual immorality. THEN they claim that because 'sons of God' in Job 1 & 2 refers to angels this also means that 'sons of God' in Gen 6 must also refer to angels. The argument is then made that the sons of Seth cannot be the 'sons of God' because they were evil. If the sons of Seth cannot be 'sons of God' because they were evil, then by what possible rule of interpretation does not claim that fallen angels are 'sons of God' EVEN THOUGH they were evil.
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It is quite simple. The bene elohim were sons of the elohim, of the spirit world, not of God. There was NO reason why they should not be seen as evil.
 
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trofimus

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trofimus, I am going to ask a simple question and I want you to give me an honest answer. Why is it so important to you that 'son of God' in either Gen 6 or in Job be angels? There has to be some reason behind this insistence.
I am not sure what you mean by "so important". Its a discussion forum thread, so I discuss it :) Like everybody else here...

I could ask you the same question, why is it so important for you that they were not angels :)
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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Originally Posted by oldhermit
trofimus, I am going to ask a simple question and I want you to give me an honest answer. Why is it so important to you that 'son of God' in either Gen 6 or in Job be angels? There has to be some reason behind this insistence.
Because it IS the word of God and therefore we need to interpret it correctly?
 

oldhermit

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Jul 28, 2012
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I am not sure what you mean by "so important". Its a discussion forum thread, so I discuss it :) Like everybody else here...

I could ask you the same question, why is it so important for you that they were not angels :)
Fair enough. Personally, I have no preference. I do not care whether the inference is to men to angels. I can only go where the preponderance of evidence from scripture takes me.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
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trofimus, I am going to ask a simple question and I want you to give me an honest answer. Why is it so important to you that 'son of God' in either Gen 6 or in Job be angels? There has to be some reason behind this insistence.
Actually, I can live without this view without any big problem. I would not have answer to some questions regarding Jude, Enoch, demons, giants, flood etc, but whatever.

How the marriage starts or how should the baptism be done, for example, such things are much more important to me... :)
 

trofimus

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Aug 17, 2015
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Fair enough. Personally, I have no preference. I do not care whether the inference is to men to angels. I can only go where the preponderance of evidence from scripture takes me.
I have read Augustin now, regarding this topic and I must admit he has some good points.

But it seems to me he is working with two groups of fallen angels theory, not sure why or where does he specifies it more (and therefore he explains Jude like not being about the fallen angels of satan)
 
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oldhermit

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I have read Augustin now, regarding this topic and I must admit he has some good points.

But it seems to me he is working with two groups of fallen angels theory, not sure why or where does he specifies it more (and therefore he explains Jude like not being about the fallen angels of satan)
Well, I have never read Augustin's arguments on this or on anything else for that matter. I do not consider him an authoritative source.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
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Well, I have never read Augustin's arguments on this or on anything else for that matter. I do not consider him an authoritative source.
Who is an authoritative source for you? Except of the 66 books :)
 

oldhermit

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Who is an authoritative source for you? Except of the 66 books :)
Only the Bible. Truth resides ONLY and EXCLUSIVELY in the language of the biblical text. The Bible is the ONLY representation of the mind of God.
 

trofimus

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Only the Bible. Truth resides ONLY and EXCLUSIVELY in the language of the biblical text. The Bible is the ONLY representation of the mind of God.
So no teachers for the Church? At all?
 

oldhermit

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No one else has presented any viable evidence from scripture to support their position. They have appealed to such things as the so-called Church fathers, people from antiquity, non-biblical sources, extra-biblical sources, and even to the human imagination. It is a pretty sure sign that a man's argument is collapsing when they stoop to appealing to such things as that vile document that is laughingly referred to as the "Book of Enoch." In all of my argumentation, have appealed to no other sources than the grammatical structure of revelation. That is the only source that has any value.
 

oldhermit

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So no teachers for the Church? At all?
LOL. You know that is not what I said or meant. All teachers must be weighed in the balance of scripture. It is scripture, not the teacher that is the authority.
 

trofimus

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Aug 17, 2015
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LOL. You know that is not what I said or meant. All teachers must be weighed in the balance of scripture. It is scripture, not the teacher that is the authority.
What is the purpose of a teacher if he does not have any authority :)