So.....being consistent with the scriptures.....When JESUS, PAUL, PETER and others quoted or referenced a prophet of OLD...did they not make reference to something that was written before.....?
Yes they did, and usually with a confirmation that it WAS written before.
Can you give three examples where a quote is made by one under inspiration where the written word is not referenced?
Yes. Jude does not say that it was written. He simply says that Enoch prophesied.
or are you saying that JUDE was inspired to give Enoch's quote with NO way to reference the validity of said quote?
That is precisely what I am saying because that is the nature of revelation. It is information that is GOD BREATHED. If it is information provided by the Holy Spirit, why would Jude need to verify the validity of the information? Think about what you are saying CD.
Like he just pulled it out of thin air, and was inspired by GOD to give the quote in JUDE?
No, he did not just "pull it out of thin air." It was not a product of his imagination, nor was it information compiled from tertiary sources. This was information provided by the Holy Spirit.
EITHER way the inference of Jude's quote is applied and compared to SODOM and the statement going after strange flesh.
No, it is not. You misunderstand what Jude said.
and what proof is there that there was no written language during the time of Enoch.....what source do you refer to?
The earliest forms of written language dates to about 3,300 BC and was created by the Sumerians. Enoch was born in the 622nd year after creation and was taken by the Lord in the 987th year after creation. So there is roughly a 1000 years between Enoch and the earliest formation of written language. Jude NEVER confirmed that Enoch ever wrote anything. He only states that Enoch prophesied and then proceeds to reveal that prophesy.