Did Jesus die for everyone?

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birdie

Senior Member
Sep 16, 2014
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Hebrews 2:9 says: "But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man."

Is this saying that Jesus is saving everyone,

or that it is wording meaning he would make the gospel available to everyone

or that the term "every man" is the Bible's way of saying every true believer and not the unsaved persons who Jesus did not taste death for
 
Hebrews 2:9 says: "But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man."

Is this saying that Jesus is saving everyone,

or that it is wording meaning he would make the gospel available to everyone

or that the term "every man" is the Bible's way of saying every true believer and not the unsaved persons who Jesus did not taste death for

It means that all men have the opportunity for salvation.
"Therefore, as one trespass led to condemnation for all men, so one act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all men."
Rom. 5:8
"For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation to all men," Titus 2:11
 
Jesus said who so ever. The sad thing is that so many seem to be rejecting His invitation.
 
Yes, but not everyone accepts the redemptive sacrifice of God's Son
 
Hebrews 2:9 says: "But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man."

Is this saying that Jesus is saving everyone,

or that it is wording meaning he would make the gospel available to everyone

or that the term "every man" is the Bible's way of saying every true believer and not the unsaved persons who Jesus did not taste death for



birdie,

IMO the intent is that Jesus made Salvation available to every person. People do indeed have the option of rejecting God's provision for forgiveness of sin and reconciliation with God.
 
He died for everyone who accepts his offering to take there price of all man's sins. Whether you or anyone who accepts it? thats down to you and the world, However, you or the world needs to know that there is still a chance to be forgiven, Before Jesus comes back.

You meaning yourself and people in general.
 
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Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me hath everlasting life
 
[h=1]1 Timothy
2[/h]
1 .) I exhort therefore, that, first of all, supplications, prayers, intercessions, and giving of thanks, be made for all men;
2 .) For kings, and for all that are in authority; that we may lead a quiet and peaceable life in all godliness and honesty.
3 .) For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour;
4 .) Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.
5 .) For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;
6 .) Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.
 
It means that all men have the opportunity for salvation.
"Therefore, as one trespass led to condemnation for all men, so one act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all men." Rom. 5:8
"For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation to all men," Titus 2:11

Thanks Old Hermit for posting these similar scriptures as well. Very relevant to the question. It seems that most here have the view that these two verses you posted and the one I posted simply mean the possibility of salvation is there for every person to choose if they'll take it or not.
While I can see how that is a natural take on these verses, I tend towards the take that these verses are very directly written. In other words, bringing salvation to all men means that that group, called 'all men' has salvation. Therefore, 'all men' would be a Bible phrase for 'true believers'. It would not, however, be those persons who reject the gospel. Similarly, how could Jesus 'taste death' for the unsaved? I find this hard to imagine. It seems like to me the phrase 'every man' who Jesus tasted death for must mean those truly saved persons who Jesus died to give eternal life for and not the unsaved. If he tasted death for the unsaved they would have eternal life too, wouldn't they?
Also, it seems to me that being born again is more a matter of the will of the father than our own choosing than we might think. After all, scripture says we did not choose God initially, but he chose us and sent his spirit into the true believers heart.
 
1 John 2:2 - And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world.
 
While I can see how that is a natural take on these verses, I tend towards the take that these verses are very directly written. In other words, bringing salvation to all men means that that group, called 'all men' has salvation. Therefore, 'all men' would be a Bible phrase for 'true believers'. It would not, however, be those persons who reject the gospel. Similarly, how could Jesus 'taste death' for the unsaved? I find this hard to imagine. It seems like to me the phrase 'every man' who Jesus tasted death for must mean those truly saved persons who Jesus died to give eternal life for and not the unsaved. If he tasted death for the unsaved they would have eternal life too, wouldn't they?

May I offer this Scripture in response?

Romans 5:6) For when we were yet without strength, in due time Christ died for the ungodly. 7) For scarcely for a righteous man will one die: yet peradventure for a good man some would even dare to die. 8) But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us. 9) Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him. 10) For if, when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled, we shall be saved by his life.
 
John 3:16 is the universal offer of salvation to the who so ever will's. John 3:18-21 tells why many do not receive. It is because the will not to receive.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 
Thanks Old Hermit for posting these similar scriptures as well. Very relevant to the question. It seems that most here have the view that these two verses you posted and the one I posted simply mean the possibility of salvation is there for every person to choose if they'll take it or not.
While I can see how that is a natural take on these verses, I tend towards the take that these verses are very directly written. In other words, bringing salvation to all men means that that group, called 'all men' has salvation. Therefore, 'all men' would be a Bible phrase for 'true believers'. It would not, however, be those persons who reject the gospel. Similarly, how could Jesus 'taste death' for the unsaved? I find this hard to imagine. It seems like to me the phrase 'every man' who Jesus tasted death for must mean those truly saved persons who Jesus died to give eternal life for and not the unsaved. If he tasted death for the unsaved they would have eternal life too, wouldn't they?
Also, it seems to me that being born again is more a matter of the will of the father than our own choosing than we might think. After all, scripture says we did not choose God initially, but he chose us and sent his spirit into the true believers heart.

i believe the Scriptures support the idea God does the choosing. :)

here's a link another member posted once (Tribesman).
i think this may be what you're thinking? :)

11 Arguments for Limited Atonement | Nathan W. Bingham

 
May I offer this Scripture in response?

Romans 5:6) For when we were yet without strength, in due time Christ died for the ungodly. 7) For scarcely for a righteous man will one die: yet peradventure for a good man some would even dare to die. 8) But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us. 9) Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him. 10) For if, when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled, we shall be saved by his life.

Thanks p_rehbein for your interesting scripture you provided. It seems to me that the "we" who are without strength are those who are intended to be saved by God and not the rest of humanity, the unsaved. It is true that the 'we' are called ungodly, but isn't that just saying that Christ reconciles sinners who will ultimately be saved? Once the conversion has occurred, then we are also saved by his life (which is the spirit he gives us and he always has). Do you see the above verses you provided as saying that Christ reconciles persons who will also be unsaved ultimately as well or just those who will be saved?

For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt.But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness. (Romans 4:3-5)
This ungodly person is therefore Abraham who became justified by belief. It is not using the term ungodly for those who are to be unsaved.

Does this seem right?
 
I think the Bible is more than clear that Jesus died to eradicate the hold of power over men that sin had... that is all men, everywhere. I believe we miss so much of Jesus' mission when we think in the narcissicistic terms of "being saved from our personal sins."

It is my opinion that Jesus came to change (return to the original condition) the relationship between both God and man, AND man to man. He did not come to just give us "a clean slate", so that we would be "pure" enough to get into Heaven. Jesus' intent was to change our hearts. Unfortunately, not very many of us ("Yes", I'm talking about 'Christians') have allowed Him to do that. We 'got saved', but still harbor most of the same self-centered desires we did before getting wet.

But, that 'change' can still happen.
 
Thanks p_rehbein for your interesting scripture you provided. It seems to me that the "we" who are without strength are those who are intended to be saved by God and not the rest of humanity, the unsaved. It is true that the 'we' are called ungodly, but isn't that just saying that Christ reconciles sinners who will ultimately be saved? Once the conversion has occurred, then we are also saved by his life (which is the spirit he gives us and he always has). Do you see the above verses you provided as saying that Christ reconciles persons who will also be unsaved ultimately as well or just those who will be saved?

For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt.But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness. (Romans 4:3-5)
This ungodly person is therefore Abraham who became justified by belief. It is not using the term ungodly for those who are to be unsaved.

Does this seem right?

Well, not to me, for Scripture clearly states that God would have ALL men to be SAVED. I do not wish to insult you or mistake your comments, but they appear to suggest a belief in Predestination as Calvin taught. I do not adhere to that particular theology, but do not condemn those who do. I believe in free will.

Thank you for the thread though, I have enjoyed reading it.
 
Jesus put it clearest of all in John 3, but that OP question requires you to get the background to analyze salvation in Christ. The mystery for people not yet "in Christ" is "why the central focus on the cross?". Jesus made it easy to understand, yet still requires you believe by faith, not just understanding of the facts.

John 3:14-15 (KJV)
[SUP]14 [/SUP] And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up:
[SUP]15 [/SUP] That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life.


"as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness" refers to Numbers 21:6-9 (KJV)
[SUP]6 [/SUP] And the LORD sent fiery serpents among the people, and they bit the people; and much people of Israel died.
[SUP]7 [/SUP] Therefore the people came to Moses, and said, We have sinned, for we have spoken against the LORD, and against thee; pray unto the LORD, that he take away the serpents from us. And Moses prayed for the people.
[SUP]8 [/SUP] And the LORD said unto Moses, Make thee a fiery serpent, and set it upon a pole: and it shall come to pass, that every one that is bitten, when he looketh upon it, shall live.
[SUP]9 [/SUP] And Moses made a serpent of brass, and put it upon a pole, and it came to pass, that if a serpent had bitten any man, when he beheld the serpent of brass, he lived.


It doesn't say everyone that was bitten was cured. It says when a victim beheld, the victim lived. The condition of being saved from the deadly snake bite was to very simply obey, do what God said to do.

In the same concept it's necessary to look upon Jesus on the cross for deliverance from the curse of sin (which causes the 'sting' of death). All who refuse to do that will suffer eternal damnation. All who believe to look upon Jesus for forgiveness of sin and eternal life will be saved.

Note that there is no mention that Moses prevented any victim from approaching to look at the brass serpent on that pole. There was no mention of exclusion of the Gentiles in that crowd. The serpent on the pole was for all who would look upon it. In the same manner Jesus on the cross is for all who will believe and trust him, not excluding anyone from coming to him. He died for all, but the benefit of his death is reserved for believers who are found "in Christ".