It is in the grammatical construction of Heb 8:13. . .where the covenant is not "becoming" obsolete.
"he has made the first one obsolete"
Because it "is obsolete," it "will soon disappear". . .at the destruction of Jerusalem, the temple
and the sacrifices.
The grammatical construction of Heb 8:13 is that the Mosaic covenant is obsolete now.
And in addition, because Israel did not keep the Mosaic covenant (Jer 11:2-14),
God promised a new covenant (Jer 31:31-34), not like the Mosaic covenant (Jer 31:32).
God is not saying in Jer 31:31-34 that both covenants will be in force at the same time.
God is saying that the Mosaic covenant to be their God was conditioned on obedience
to the Mosiac law, which they flagrantly disobeyed (Jer 11:2-14) and were not able
to keep (Gal 3:10-12; Ro 3:10), therefore, he will give them a new covenant that is not
conditioned on their ability to keep it, but on God's operation of his Spirit within them (Jer 31:31-34).
Your notion of both covenants being in force now at the same time makes no Biblical sense.
So who has been under the Mosaic covenant, rather than the new covenant, for the last 2,000 years?
Has a covenant been in force for the last 2,000 years which includes no one?
Or is everyone now under two covenants?
The Mosaic covenant is now obsolete.
"he has made the first one obsolete"
Because it "is obsolete," it "will soon disappear". . .at the destruction of Jerusalem, the temple
and the sacrifices.
The grammatical construction of Heb 8:13 is that the Mosaic covenant is obsolete now.
And in addition, because Israel did not keep the Mosaic covenant (Jer 11:2-14),
God promised a new covenant (Jer 31:31-34), not like the Mosaic covenant (Jer 31:32).
God is not saying in Jer 31:31-34 that both covenants will be in force at the same time.
God is saying that the Mosaic covenant to be their God was conditioned on obedience
to the Mosiac law, which they flagrantly disobeyed (Jer 11:2-14) and were not able
to keep (Gal 3:10-12; Ro 3:10), therefore, he will give them a new covenant that is not
conditioned on their ability to keep it, but on God's operation of his Spirit within them (Jer 31:31-34).
Your notion of both covenants being in force now at the same time makes no Biblical sense.
So who has been under the Mosaic covenant, rather than the new covenant, for the last 2,000 years?
Has a covenant been in force for the last 2,000 years which includes no one?
Or is everyone now under two covenants?
The Mosaic covenant is now obsolete.
Heb 8:8 For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah:
Heb 8:10 For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:
Is that the case today?