This has been covered numerous times and context dictates what the bible teaches about wine.....
Question.....
Were the Pharisees stupid and or the bible not inspired when they raked Jesus over the coals for eating and drinking with the people when they called him a
1. Wine bibber
or
2.Grape juice drinker
Can straight grape juice expand old wineskins to bursting point without having help?
Was God stupid and or misinformed when Jesus said...
I sent John unto u (strait laced and walking the line and your refused to dance)...
I came eating and drinking and was accused of being a WINEBIBBER and friends of sinners.....
And they would not (dance).....obviously paraphrasing
Jesus was not called a winebibber because he drank unfermented grape juice.....
It is not those things that enter into a man that defiles a man.......
I agree with some things you say....
In the context of Matt 11:18,19 Jesus being called a winebibber in no way proves he drank alcoholic wine.
If Jesus falsely being called a drunkard/winebibber "proves" that He must have drank fermented drinks,
then
Jesus being called a sinner, Jn 9:24, must "prove" that He must have committed sin
Jesus being called a deciever, Mt 27:63, must "prove" He must have deceived people
Jesus said to have a demon, Jn 7:20, must "prove" He had demonic powers, "proves" He was Beelzebul as they called Him, Mt 10:25
Jesus was said to do that which is not lawful, Mt 12:2, must "prove" he broke the law on occasion
Jesus was said to blaspheme, Jn 10:33, so that must "prove" He must have done some blaspheming
The truth is, Jesus was no more a winebibber than He was a glutton or that John had a devil. Jesus came to save sinners and He went among sinners, those that were winebibbers and gluttons, and His enemies accused Jesus in participating in those sins since He was seen among those that were gluttons and winebibbers.
Lastly, in the context of Matt 11, the phrase eating and drinking is used figuratively to describe the lifestyles. When it says John came not eating or drinking that is figurative for his reclusive, anti-social lifestyle away from people. When it says Jesus came eating and drinking that is figurative for His social lifestyle among people and not literally about what He ate or drank.
Does the phrase "John came neither eating nor drinking" literally mean John did not eat or drink anything? No. So that must mean the phrases "eating and drinking" is used in a figurative sense.
Jn 2:11 "
This beginning of miracles did Jesus in Cana of Galilee, and manifested forth his glory; and his disciples believed on him".
The purpose of Jesus performing miracles. as the one in Cana, was to 1) manifest His glory and 2) induce a belief in men. Jesus sinning in contributing to the drunkenness of men would not accomplish either.