You're wrong man. He tells them throughout the whole chapter not to do it.
Have you really read the chapter through carefully. I know it is possible for people to read the text of scripture and not perceive. Pray for understanding first, and then read.
Paul does not say not to do it. He said, "I would that ye all spake with tongues", "I speak with tongues more than ye all." He says "Forbid not to speak with tongues." If Paul were telling them not to speak with tongues, then he would be contradicting himself when he says forbid not to speak with tongues. There are some limitations on tongues. Verses 27 and 28 allow for speaking in tongues in church if there is an interpreter, but otherwise for the speaker in tongues to keep silence in the church.
Does he emphasize the importance of prophecy more than tongues? Yes.
The tongues he desired them to speak are real tongues, not what they were doing.
What translation are you using? I Corinthians says absolutely nothing about fake or false tongues. What verse do you see that in? The Corinthians have a real gift and they are likely using it wrongly. Paul gives instructions on how to use the gift rightly. If spoken to the church, tongues should be interpreted. If there is no interpreter, the speaker must keep silent and speak to himself and to God. Paul builds up his argument leading up to this, showing that speaking in tongues without interpretation only builds up the speaker, but does nothing for the rest of the church. It needs interpretation, otherwise it does not benefit others. If you search through commentaries and ancient sermons, you can find people who have no experience with tongues or are diligent students of the text who see these same things?
Specifically, where do you get this idea that the Corinthians weren't using the real gift?
They obviously weren't interpreting just like today. It's the same problem.
I'd agree with you that they probably had the same or similar problem to what we have today in some churches. There are churches where someone speaks in tongues, and another interprets today. There are churches which actively teach that. I think AOG Bible College students are taught that, or at least used to be back when I went to an AOG. That's the biggest Pentecostal denomination. There are also churches where they tell everyone to speak in tongues at the same time. That is a problem, I agree. But it doesn't necessarily mean their tongues are false any more than it means the Corinthians are.
And you can say that churches that use tongues disorderly contrary to the passage are disobedient just as churches that do not allow tongues in an orderly manner as the passage commands.
As far as whether they are doing the same thing or not, I don't know. It could be the Corinthians took turns speaking in tongues without interpretation one by one rather than en masse. Maybe they did both. I can't tell for sure from the passage.
He was not encouraging tongues at all. He was telling them to keep quiet throughout the entire chapter.
Specifically, where do you see this? Better yet, start by explaining I Corinthians 14:26-28. Why does Paul specifically allow tongues with interpretation if his point is to try to stop them from speaking in tongues altogether? The arguments about tongues lead up to those commandments of the Lord on the proper order for tongues in church.
The tongues at Corinth contradict the tongues in Acts in so many ways. Paul was telling them not to practice whatever it is they were doing and calling tongues.
You got this idea stuck in your head that Acts is right and Corinthians is wrong. There are two things going on in Acts. One is the Spirit arranged for people to speak in foreign languages. The other is that the languages He gave happened to be the same ones the people present knew.
That wasn't happening in Corinth. The Corinthians were speaking in foreign languages by the Spirit, but no one present understood. Probably, that was the norm for tongues, at least in assemblies of the saints. (Keep in mind Acts is more of an evangelistic context rather than a church meeting, at least what happened when the onlookers witnessed the tongues.)
Listen, if what you were saying were true, why would the gift of interpretation of tongues need to exist? If the Spirit giving people the ability to speak in languages is only legit if other people there can understand, why would a gift need to exist to interpret the language?
God just does not always see to it that those present understand.
Definite foreign languages used
Acts 2:6
Unknown tongues used
1 Corinthians 14:2,4
Unknown is in italics. It's something the KJV translators added because they thought it made the text make more sense. They probably saw in the context that the languages were unknown to speaker and hearer and wanted to put a word in to show that or to show that this was a supernatural manifestation. I'm guessing here, not reading KJV translator's personal notes. The Corinthians were speaking languages. The difference is who God had present when they were doing so. God putting someone in the midst who knows the language is not a part of the gift of tongues. It is not inherent in the meaning of the phrase 'speaking in other languages'.
If you speak in other languages naturally, does the fact that you speak guarantee that someone will be present who understands? I could speak in a foreign language naturally. I could say right here, "Hola, como estas." I just did. No Mexicans or Columbians magically appeared. No Castellanos popped into the room suddenly. When someone speaks in tongues by the Spirit, there is no guarantee that God will bring someone who speaks that language into his presence every time. In fact it's not the norm. Paul says, "No man understandeth him" and it is quite like that in 'all the churches of the saints' when people spoke in tongues no one was generally there that understood.
Acts 10 does not mention people present to understand when the Gentiles spoke in other languages. Neither does Acts 19 when the followers of John the Baptist spoke in tongues.
The Holy Spirit interprets
Acts 2:6-8
You are assuming the Spirit interpreted instead of just having people present who understood. The Bible says they disciples spoke in tongues and it says the people heard them speak in their own languages. So why assume a miracle of the ear there? If they heard them speak in their own languages, then was it not in their own languages that they spoke? They did not say we heard the sounds of their own languages though they did not speak in them. They said they heard them speak in their own languages.
Human beings interpret
1 Corinthians 14:13
Why would Paul tell a human being to 'pray that he made interpret' if a human being interpreting by a manifestation of the Spirit was not a real gift? Do you think the gift of interpretation is fake, too? Why would Paul tell people to pray for fake gifts and exercise a fake gift himself?
Only apostles talked in tongues
Acts 1:26
The passage says 'they were all.' The larger group had 120. Grammatically, the idea that this must refer to the apostles just doesn't stick. There were about 18 languages there, and you would have there be 12 speakers.
Everyone talked in tongues
1 Corinthians 14:23,26
Verse 23 is a scenario.
But the Corinthians came behind in no spiritual gift, in spite of their shortcomings. I am not sure that 'every one of you hath a' means that each person had each thing in the list or if everyone had at least one. But that's a good point, and one that I suppose an initial evidence adherent could use. I'm not one. But it is interesting that in Acts, we read about the apostles healing and doing miracles. A few chapters in, two of the men chosen to feed widows do miracles. Then we read about prophets in the Jerusalem church. By the time you get to I Corinthians 12, Jews and Gentiles in Corinth are exercising those manifestation of the Spirit, the Joel prophecy being fulfilled.
A mighty rushing wind evident
Acts 2:2
No mighty rushing wind at Corinth
Cloven tongues of fire
Acts 2:3
No cloven tongues at Corinth
Neither the wind nor fire are mentioned in Acts 10 or 19 accounts. There were accounts of people seeing fire at the Azusa Street Revival, though, including people outside who called the fire department.
All done decently and in order
Acts 2
All done disorderly
1 Corinthians 14:33
Did Acts 2 really follow the order laid out in I Corinthians? It wasn't a church meeting, IMO, or not in the same way. It was an evangelistic encounter.
Something was wrong with the tongues at Corinth. It wasn't the same thing, nor was it being encouraged.
I Corinthians is scripture, too, just as much as Acts is.