what i've been told is that one of the reasons modern texts do not strictly follow the textus recepticus as the kjv and its derivatives do, is that scholarship in the centuries since the first few english language Bibles were translated has discovered a great number more ancient manuscripts than were available in the 16th century, and revealed that the byzantine area scribes were much more likely to edit, redact, and add to texts when copying than the alexandrian area scribes, who held accuracy in comparatively higher regard, whereas the byzantine monks had the attitude that interpretive changes were sometimes necessary. that there are statistically far more identifiable and traceable errors in byzantine families of copied texts, that this is why in the relative modern era, they are not trusted to the same degree, and the alexandrian text families are favored.
i'd like to know the facts of this, given in an unbiased way. i'm just relating an account i've heard through a not a few sources.
i'd like to know the facts of this, given in an unbiased way. i'm just relating an account i've heard through a not a few sources.
In Luke chapter 4 we see an interesting situation
The spirit of the Lord is upon me
But Isaiah wrote
Spirit of the Lord God
There are several explanations for this, but the one I like to go with is that Luke, under inspiration of the holy Spirit, figured that close enough was good enough!
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