Why do Dispensationalists teach Separation Theology?

[RickStudies]

could this be an example of dispensationalism:

matthew 25:31-46 teaches salvation by works. as does that one place where they ask Jesus what good thing must i DO and Jesus says keeps commandments because He hasnt died yet.
st.paul teaches salvation by grace through faith eph 2:8-9 2 timothy 1:9.

There is a variety of Dispensationalist view. Opinions vary on how many ages there are. On your issue there is debate on when the so called "church age" begins. My opinion, I would go to Acts 9 as the beginning of "grace age"

 

[RickStudies]

Yes, but they were not required by god

Rom had laws also, and breaking those laws could cause the death penalty and be outcast to prison,

Even a jew could get these if they broke roman law.

Rome wasn`t a Theocracy, Israel was. I never really focused on that aspect of it until this recent battle with you and the others. I always thought they kept the law because it`s the way they had lived with Jesus and because Jesus commanded them to keep it.
Now my thinking is that they mainly kept it in later years because Israel was a Theocracy and they were pretty much forced to maintain it as Jewish citizens.

 

[Absolutely]

Only in your own head.

I demonstrated it.
I know my bible.
You leave out my verses to defend some doctrine you were duped in.

 

[Absolutely]

There is a variety of Dispensationalist view. Opinions vary on how many ages there are. On your issue there is debate on when the so called "church age" begins. My opinion, I would go to Acts 9 as the beginning of "grace age"

Jesus is the beginning.
Your warped sense of the mission of Jesus has you framing everything by your false teachers.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Rome wasn`t a Theocracy, Israel was. I never really focused on that aspect of it until this recent battle with you and the others. I always thought they kept the law because it`s the way they had lived with Jesus and because Jesus commanded them to keep it.
Now my thinking is that they mainly kept it in later years because Israel was a Theocracy and they were pretty much forced to maintain it as Jewish citizens.

Rome was in charge. If you broke their laws, you were punished

Isreal kept laws because god gave the commands to them,

Although i agree, it is prety silly for them to keep saxrificial laws, but remember, they rejected their messiah, so in their mind they had to.

And yes, the rulers forced them to, i agree. But then peter was scolded for keeping the law near gentiles when he did not have to, and as you suggest, because he was afraid of the jews.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

There is a variety of Dispensationalist view. Opinions vary on how many ages there are. On your issue there is debate on when the so called "church age" begins. My opinion, I would go to Acts 9 as the beginning of "grace age"

Never heard of this

I always thought it began when jesus said “it is finished”

I know some think in acts 2 on day of pentecost

But when jesus said it is finished the law was fulfilled, a new do covenant was ratified with his blood. (How i see it)or maybe his resurrection, when it was proven

 

[RickStudies]

Jesus is the beginning.
Your warped sense of the mission of Jesus has you framing everything by your false teachers.

I was just using the typical terms, they are used in multiple denominations, it`s mainstream Christian slang terms. Grace = times of the Gentiles.

 

[RickStudies]

I demonstrated it.
I know my bible.
You leave out my verses to defend some doctrine you were duped in.

What were they? I`d like to look at them again.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

I was just using the typical terms, they are used in multiple denominations, it`s mainstream Christian slang terms. Grace = times of the Gentiles.

The time of the gentiles started with babylon,

 

[Melach]

Matt 25 is jesus talking about the last judgement and is descriptive, not prescriptive

what does that mean? descriptive not prescriptive?

when church began to that i say also acts2.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

what does that mean? descriptive not prescriptive?

when church began to that i say also acts2.

Descriptive m ans it is an iverview or describes who they (children of God) and what they do

Prescriptive means it is requirement to b accomplished if you are to be a child of god,

I would agree

 

[RickStudies]

The time of the gentiles started with babylon,

My mistake, I should have said fulness of the gentiles.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

My mistake, I should have said fulness of the gentiles.

All the same in my view

 

[iamsoandso]

Mat 1
17 So all the generations from Abraham to David are fourteen generations; and from David until the carrying away into Babylon are fourteen generations; and from the carrying away into Babylon unto Christ are fourteen generations.

Apparently God is a dispensationalist

Genesis is the name given to the first book of Moses when the Septuagint was interpreted because it tells the "toledoth" https://biblehub.com/hebrew/8435.htm of the heaven and earth and Adam, Noah, Abraham ect.

The concept of the seven days,generations is in many Jewish teachings. Jubilees is 120 sets of 50 so 120x50=6000. The Jews say it's the year 5759 because their counting off six one thousand year days. Adam was told the earth would bring forth thorns and thistles and he would work by the sweat of his brow. Six days thou shalt labor and on the seventh rest,,,,1(work),2(work),3(work)4(work),5(work),6000(work),,,7'th(Millennial rest and no work).

It's somthing that has been believed and taught from the beginning and in our modern days some are figuring out bits and pieces of it and calling it Dispensationism. That's why their list is similar to the list I gave.

 

[RickStudies]

All the same in my view

They are not the same. Fulness of the Gentiles is the time period Gentiles enjoy God`s favor in order to provoke Israel to jealousy.
Times of the Gentiles begins with Babylon as you assert. In the church age they are concurrent.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

They are not the same. Fulness of the Gentiles is the time period Gentiles enjoy God`s favor in order to provoke Israel to jealousy.
Times of the Gentiles begins with Babylon as you assert. In the church age they are concurrent.

I disagree, fullness of gentile The time period God allows gentile kingdoms to rule, it will be when God crushes these kingdoms that the fullness comes, and the blindness in part is removed.

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

They are not the same. Fulness of the Gentiles is the time period Gentiles enjoy God`s favor in order to provoke Israel to jealousy.
Times of the Gentiles begins with Babylon as you assert. In the church age they are concurrent.

Pretty much agree! (they are distinct!)



[the one ends at our Rapture (the Rapture of "the Church which is His body"); the other ends at His Second Coming to the earth FOR the promised and prophesied earthly Millennial Kingdom (Rev11:2) and that one started in 606/605bc]

 

[RickStudies]

Pretty much agree! (they are distinct!)



[the one ends at our Rapture (the Rapture of "the Church which is His body"); the other ends at His Second Coming to the earth FOR the promised and prophesied earthly Millennial Kingdom (Rev11:2) and that one started in 606/605bc]

Maybe it ends with the seventh angel (Rev 10)

 

[Guojing]

Well your wrong in your opinion. I am prime example that knows paul taught the gospel of christ, same as peter james and john

I don’t consider you as one too but if you want to insist you are, that is your prerogative.

 

[Nehemiah6]

Fulness of the Gentiles is the time period Gentiles enjoy God`s favor in order to provoke Israel to jealousy.

Actually the fulness of the Gentiles means that the full complement of Gentiles to enter into the Church has been brought in by God's grace. There will be no more Gentiles added to the Church (a distinct entity) after that. Which also means that it will coincide with the Resurrection/Rapture.