While I agree with this definition of the perfect, it is only true in the Indicative. There is no time in the Subjunctive, imperative, etc.
"Aspect" is more important in Koine Greek, than time. In other words, how you are viewing it. The Aorist tense is more like sitting on the sidewalk watching the parade go by. Whereas the perfect is more like view the parade from start to finish from above.
"Aspect" is more important in Koine Greek, than time. In other words, how you are viewing it. The Aorist tense is more like sitting on the sidewalk watching the parade go by. Whereas the perfect is more like view the parade from start to finish from above.
My post focused on:
1) v.10 saying "having been sanctified [PERFECT participle]"; and
2) v.14 saying "He has perfected [PERFECT *indicative* active; and then the rest of the sentence saying-->] for/unto/eis all time/the ever..."
So, in view of this, I am not sure what your disagreement is, or *where exactly* your correction ought to apply. Please clarify.
Are you merely endeavoring to correct the "definition" of the "Perfect Tense" thing I put, or are you trying to point out how this does not apply to these two verses in some way (the way I've stated), or something else entirely? I'm finding it difficult to tell, with the information you have provided. Are you saying that the one that is a "perfect participle" does not mean [insert the definition I provided; and the rest of the sentence saying "by means of the offering of the body of Christ once-for-all/once]?? and that the one with the "perfect indicative" doesn't mean [insert the definition I provided; and/or that the words following don't mean what they appear to mean?] (sorry, I'm getting kinda tired on this end).
Would appreciate any clarification (to my understanding) you care to provide. Thanks!